Just Give Them The Truth

God, Jesus, Jesus is not God, Crucifixion, Resurrection, Bible, Paul, Christianity, Pagan

Category Archives: Bible Not Inspired

The Virgin Birth Lie ISAIAH 7:14 ( “The Immaculate DECEPTION?” )

immaculate deception 1

“The Immaculate DECEPTION?” 

The Virgin Birth Lie ISAIAH 7:14 


I hope that what you see here edifies God and helps you understand how the ROMAN’S have lied to us and forced us into believing their pagan lies. So sit back get your bibles out and let’s study to show ourselves approved.

Isaiah 7:14 is one of the most widely accepted and sacred scriptures in Christianity. For centuries Christians have accepted the Greco/Roman Theologians view that Isaiah foretold the miraculous birth of Jesus. They want us to openly believe that the Jewish nation knew this verse to be a prophecy and that these Jewish fathers were waiting in total anticipation for such an event to take place. Now is this the truth? I can simply tell you “NO!” But that doesn’t mean you will believe me. I need for you to study along with me so that we can determine just what Isaiah was actually trying to say at the time in verse fourteen is that okay? Then let’s begin:

  • Therefore Yahweh Himself will give you a sign: Behold, the virgin shall conceive, and bear a Son, and shall call his name IMMANUEL.” ISAIAH 7:13-14KJV

Now if we were to merely read this one verse by itself it would seem as if this verse justifies the claims that there is a prophecy of a miraculous verse right? I mean it does say that God was given a sign that a“virgin” was going to have a child. However here is something the Christians theologian hope that you and I will never do and that is to, Read all of the verses! You cannot skip over thirteen other verses as if they don’t exist and accept just the one that fits your theology.To understand verse 14, we need to see what was happening in all of the other verses that have lead up to it.

In the original context, Judah and Israel were two separate nations. God chose David as His first-born son (Psalms 89) and as King of Judah. Years later after David’s death, King Resin of Syria and King Pekah of Israel decided to join forces and attempt to destroy Judah without God’s permission. Even though Judah’s King(Ahaz) openly disobeyed God’s covenant, God refused to let these two nations destroy David’s house. In verses 5 thru 7, God then sends Isaiah to King Ahaz to alert him of the plans of these two other nations. Isaiah assures King Ahaz that his house would survive as long as he would trust God’s word. Hoping that Ahaz would put his trust in God, Isaiah gave him a “prophetic” timeline for his enemies’ destruction!


  • “For the head of SYRIA is Damascus, and the head of Damascus is Rezin: and within THREESCORE AND FIVE YEARS shall EPHRAIM be broken, that it be not a people.” ISAIAH 7:5-9

So God lets King Ahaz know that if he puts his faith in God, his enemies have no chance of defeating him. God says that since Ephraim has committed a host of sinful acts, then they too will also be conquered and cease to be a nation! God gives Ahaz the assurance that their complete downfall shall happen within a 65-year span! That’s right people this prophetic event had an exact time frame as to when all of these events were to occur! Let’s stop for a second,because I have to ask you:

“Does any of this sound like a prophecy of Jesus yet?”

I’m sure your answer is the same as mine, “NO!” Let’s continue…

King Ahaz hears the words of Isaiah but he is not convinced that God alone can save him. Agitated at Ahaz’ lack of faith in God’s word, Isaiah then tells Ahaz to ask God for a specific sign. Ahaz refuses to ask for a sign.Guess what? God decides to give Ahaz a sign anyway! Ahaz receives a prophetic sign from God!

  • Therefore Yahweh Himself will give you a sign: Behold, the(Virgin) shall conceive, and bear a Son, and shall call his name IMMANUEL.” ISAIAH 7:14KJV

As you can see we have now arrived at the infamous verse 14. So as you read this verse in context you can see that it was given specifically for King Ahaz. There is nothing in context before or after verse 14 that could make anyone believe that this prophecy was about Jesus or any other futuristic Messiah. Don’t you remember just five verses earlier in ISAIAH 7:5-9 when God said this would all happen within a 65 year time frame? Then how do they expect us to believe this verse could be about Jesus? You have seen the verses and the theologians are terrified that you will exercise your God given spirit to think on your own!

Now that we have discovered the truth some of you may ask:

“How did we come to believe this was a prophecy of Jesus in the first place?”

Most of us were never taught to read the entire verses in context for a true understanding. The Satanic mistranslation of(ONE) word by the false writers of the (Greek) Septuagintwhich is the Greek translation of the Hebrew Old Testament and the (Greek) book of Matthew 1:23, started all of these lies.

The sons of Satan purposely combined their pagan virgin stories with the words of Isaiah. The word translated from Hebrew doesn’t necessarily mean “virgin.” There are two Hebrew words usually translated to mean “virgin” in English.“Bethulah” means virgin in the sense that we understand it. It was used, for example, in Isaiah 62:

  • “For as a young man marrieth a virgin/Bethulah, so shall thy sons marry thee: and as the bridegroom rejoiceth over the bride, so shall thy God rejoice over thee.” ISAIAH 62:5

As you can see Isaiah uses the proper term for Virgin as: (Bethulah) whenever he wanted to actually speak of a woman who has not had sex. Isaiah wanted to convey another message in 7:14.

The Hebrew word:

(ALMAH) is the word used Isaiah chose to use in this verse. This word simply means a Young maiden or young woman.

The word ALMAH appears in the Jewish scriptures seven times.Although it can mean a virgin in some instances theologians want you to believe that YHWH as the giver of the word and Isaiah as the writer would confuse us to their own meaning. Does any of that logic make sense to you? It couldn’t possibly make sense especially in the context that Isaiah is using it to warn King Ahaz about Resin and Remaliah? So how can theologians claim that Isaiah didn’t know what proper words he wanted to use? Isaiah knew exactly why he used the proper word Alma because he wasn’t giving a 700-year futuristic prophecy. Now place yourself on the scene at this time. You are so scared because you think you and your kingdom are about to be destroyed. Some little Prophet walks up to you and say:

  • “Hey, you and your kingdom are about to be destroyed. You will die a horrible death, your women will be raped, and all of your sons will have their genitals cut off and become eunuchs.” But, I do have some good news for you! I just saved some money on my insurance by switching to G**CO?”Oh yeah, I almost forgot, Jesus will be born of a virgin later on in the future for mankind’s sins? Have a nice day. See ‘ya!”

Would that conversation make any sense to you? Of course not! A conversation like this wouldn’t have made sense to King Ahaz at the time either. Simply put, we have been lied to!

The “CHILD” was the sign and “NOT” a miraculous birth. Now I want you to pay special attention to the writings of Isaiah. When Isaiah actually spoke of a true virgin he used the proper word Bethulah five times-throughout the book of Isaiah. (23:4; 23:12; 37:22; 47:1; 62:5). He uses-the Hebrew word Alma only one time throughout all of his writings.

From the above verses of Isaiah we can see without question that Isaiah definitely knew the difference between the two words Bethulah and Alma,Isaiah was not “Foreshadowing” a prophecy of Jesus as the blinded theologians-expect us to blindly believe. Now look at another scripture outside of Isaiah-where Alma is used:

  • “There are three things which are too wonderful for me, four which I do not understand: the way of an eagle in the sky, the way of a serpent on a rock, the way of a ship in the middle of the sea, and the way of a man with a young woman (b’alma).  This is the way of an adulterous woman: she eats and wipes her mouth, and says, “I have done no wrong.” PROVERBS 30:18-20

Solomon uses the same word Alma as well. Clearly the context in which he uses the word proves this Alma cannot be a virgin because she was an adulterous woman!What is Solomon saying about this woman in the context? Well Solomon is making a comparison of an eagle in the sky, a serpent on a rock, a ship in the middle of the sea and this Alma. What do these have in common? None of them leave a trace that they have been in a particular place. After an eagle flies in the sky there is no trace. If a snake slithers on a rock he doesn’t leave an impression like he would in the grass, mud or sand. When a ship parts the waters during its voyage the water closes in behind it as if it never went through. Lastly Solomon speaks of that after the young woman has done her fornication she gets up and there is no trace of it for anyone to see as well except for God of course. To reiterate, this Alma was not a virgin at all.

The confusion arose when the Greek Septuagint used the Greek word “PARTHENOS” to translate Isaiah 7:14. This Grecian translation does speak of a woman who hasn’t had Sexual experiences. However, the person that translated the Hebrew word didn’t know the proper term Isaiah used or chose to ignore it for their own agendas. The church copied a scripture from the Old Testament and simply applied it to the none-existent pagan inspired Virgin Birth of Jesus. In no possible way can you mistake this CHILD for JESUS!  We-know that IMMANUEL means: “God is with us.God gave this child as a sign to Ahaz to show him and his people that the Almighty Father of Abraham was with them!

So after reading Isaiah 7:14 in the context we know this CANNOT be the prophecy of Jesus because of the very next verse:

  • “For BEFORE the “CHILD” shall know to refuse evil, and choose the good, the land that thou abhorrest SHALL be forsaken of both her kings.” ISAIAH 7:16

Here yet again the theologians are proven wrong by the word of God. We can clearly see another example of a true prophetic “TIMELINE!”

Now I may be wrong but I think Jesus’ birth is not scheduled for another 700 years. Wow! I don’t think the priest saw that one coming did they? The scripture says that BEFORE this“CHILD” will know to refuse evil, the literal lands that attempt to destroy Judah will be forsaken by both of their”KINGS!” Now ask yourself a great question:

“Are there any documents of lands that were conquered when Jesus was a BABY?NO!

This event didn’t happen in Jesus time. Now we no longer have to guess who the child was. So that future generations would know the truth, God told Isaiah to write down in a scroll who the CHILD really was!


  • MOREOVER the LORD said unto me, Take thee a great roll, and write in it with a man’s pen CONCERNING MA’-HER-SHAL’-AL-HASH’-BAZ. ISAIAH 8:1 KJV

Chapter 8 continues the message of Chapter 7. Notice closely that Isaiah is now showing the prophetic fulfillment of the prophecy of the “CHILD” in chapter 7 by starting the chapter with the word “MOREOVER.”

Amazingly Isaiah then tells us the identity of the “ALMAH” or should I say the identity of the “young woman” who gave birth to the child for the actual fulfillment of His prophecy.


  • And “I WENT unto the prophetess and she conceived, and (BARE A SON,) then said the Lord to me call his name MA’-HER-SHAL’-AL-HASH’-BAZ.” ISAIAH 8:3 KJV

WOW! Are you seeing the truth yet? Isaiah says this child belongs to him and his very own wife! The Jewish nation knew this wasn’t a prophecy of Jesus and as a Christian I now can see that this verse wasn’t written for modern day Christians or any other future generation outside of these inhabitants of-Judah.

Clearly God has shown us the truth!  He personally commands Isaiah to “WRITE DOWN on a scroll so that WE,the future generations will know who the prophetic (child) really was!”  Notice in verse (3)where Isaiah clearly says that it was he not the Holy Spirit that had SEXUAL-RELATIONS with the Prophetess, who we now know is ISAIAH’S very ownWIFE. God used Isaiah’s own children to facilitate the signs as proof to King Ahaz and the House of David.

As we now can see, Isaiah’s wife gave birth to Isaiah’s own prophesied son (Maher-shalal-hash-baz) in Ahaz’ lifetime. Again, let’s compare the two scriptures in Isaiah 7:16 and Isaiah 8:4 where God gives crystal clear descriptions on what will happen during this “CHILD’S era:

  • “For BEFORE the “CHILD” shall (know) to refuse evil, and choose the good, the land that thou abhorrest SHALL be forsaken of both her kings.”  ISAIAH 7:16

Notice now that two Kings and two Lands will suffer destruction during this child’s lifetime. Does the next verse say the same thing? Let’s see:

  • “For BEFORE the “CHILD” shall have (knowledge) to cry, my father and my mother, the riches of DAMASCUS and the spoil of SAMARIA shall be taken away before the king of Assyria.” ISAIAH 8:4

Clearly this verse says the same thing too. Look at how the beginnings of both bible scriptures are identical. Both verses proclaim:

“For BEFORE the “CHILD” shall know.”

From these two verses it is clear that the Child and not some imaginary miraculous “VIRGIN” birth is the promised sign. Here God gave King Ahaz clear instructions on what will happen to the two kingdoms that are attempting to attack him. Clearly from reading both Isaiah 7:16 and also Isaiah 8:4, in the context that God had Isaiah write them we seethe truth that MAHER-SHALAL-HASH-BAZ is the prophesied Child of Isaiah and his young wife! Since we are proclaiming this is not Jesus,we must then answer the question:

“Was this prophecy of the Destruction of Damascus and Samaria during King Ahaz’ dayactually destroyed as God said it would?”

Good question! Let’s see if the bible gives us the answers…

Question# 01: “Was King Resin and Damascus destroyed”?


  • “And “AHAZ” took the silver and gold that was found in the house of the LORD, and in the treasures of the king’s house, and sent it for a present to the “king of Assyria.” And the king of ASSYRIA hearkened unto him: for the “KING OF ASSYRIA”went up against “DAMASCUS” and “TOOK IT,” and carried the people of it captive to Kir, and “SLEW RESIN.” 2ND KINGS 16:8, 9

So as you can see God’s word stands true for all generations to see. God promised the destruction of Damascus and it was fulfilled in the Old Testament during King Ahaz’ days not during Jesus’ lifetime.

Question# 02: Was Samaria/Israel destroyed too?”


  • “In the twelfth year of “AHAZ” king of Judah began Hoshea the son of Elah to reign in “SAMARIA” over “ISRAEL” nine years.” 2ND KINGS 17:1 KJV

So far so good, King Ahaz isin the picture as the prophecy starts to unfold before our very eyes.


  • “Then the “KING OF ASSYRIA” came up throughout all the land, and went up to “SAMARIA” and besieged it three years. In the ninth year of Hoshea the King of Assyria took“SAMARIA,” and carried “ISRAEL” away to “ASSYRIA,”and placed them in Halah and in Habor by the river of Gozan, and in the cities of the Medes.” 2ND KINGS 17:5, 6 KJV

The scriptures provide one hundred percent proof that this prophecy cannot be Jesus in any shape, form, or fashion! God provided all the proof we needed.Isaiah told King Ahaz the word of God that both, Damascus and Samaria were going to be destroyed and that Ahaz would definitely see the destruction in his lifetime. This is why God provided a sign as an assurance that this prophecy would soon reach fulfillment.

The “CHILD” was the prophetic sign, not that is was to have an alleged miraculous birth.  This sign is equal to the signof the rainbow that God gave to Noah after the great flood. The child’s birth stands as confirmation that God’s word is true and stands forever. Through this sign God confirmed His word and power over Judah’s enemies. Isaiah himself confirms this with no interpretation needed:

  • BEHOLD, I and the (CHILDREN) whom the Lord hath given (ME) are for SIGNS and for WONDERS in Israel from the LORD OF HOSTS, which dwelleth in MOUNT ZION.” ISAIAH 8:18 KJV

Now how can you argue with the original writer when he tells us that these prophecies are about His very own children?

The Hebrew names of Isaiah’s children had significant meanings:


“A remnant shallreturn,”


“Speeding to the prey,” or “`your enemies will soon bedestroyed.”’


“God is with us.”

Now before you jump on me and say:

“The bible says God says the child’s namein 7:14was called Immanuel and not Maher-shalal-hash-baz!”

I must make it clear to you “IMMANUEL” is not a third son of Isaiah. “ImmanuEl” and Mahershalalhashbaz “is the same child.How can this be you man ask? Let me show you why this is so…

Although God tells Isaiah to call the child Immanuel this is not really the child’s actual name.

The name “Immanu-El” is only a “BATTLE CRY” or statement of faith. This child was to be a prophetic sign and a comfort to King Ahaz and the “House of David” that God will not let them be defeated by their enemies. Hence, the House of David shall see this prophetic sign and shout with a loud voice and proclaim: “O’ Immanuel! Because: “God is with them!”

This is also proven when God decided to punish Ahaz and Judah for their disobedience. God chose to forsake Ahaz/Judah and strengthen the hands of their enemies.Assyria can now shout with a loud voice and proclaim:

O’ Immanuel! Meaning: “GOD IS NOW WITH US ASSYRIANS!”

Watch as God uses this term again:

  • “Since the people of Jerusalem are planning to refuse my gentle care and are enthusiastic about asking “KING RESIN” and “KING PEKAH” to come and aid them, therefore I will overwhelm my people with Euphrates mighty flood; the “KING OF ASSYRIA” and all his mighty armies will rageagainst them. This flood will overflow all its channels and sweep into your land of JUDAH,“O’IMMANUEL.” ISAIAH 8:6-8 KJV

The title of: O’ Immanuel is used here once again. So why do you think God is calling the name Immanuel again in this verse?  I’m sure you will agree that in verse (8) God was not callingon the name of Jesus or the name of the child of chapter 7:14 when he says: (0’Immanuel) right?

By God using the name again in verse 8:6 this proves that the name Immanuel is not the child’s literal name but it is testimonial statement of faith and consolation. Isaiah expresses this point one last time just two verse later inverse (10) when he orders the people to trust in Him alone and warns them what will happen if they decide to join forces with any other nation:

  • “Take counsel together, and it should come to nought; speak the word, and it shall “not” stand; for (GOD IS WITH US/.O’Immanuel)” ISAIAH 8:6-8

No I didn’t just add the word O’Immanuel to the verse to prove my point. If you look at the Hebrew words you will see the name in the verse.

Isaiah says: “God is with us!” or better still“O’IMMANUEL!” ISAIAH 8:6-8

I hope now the contextual truth is starting to appear to you.Now even after this stern warning from God the Jews still disobeyed God. In Isaiah 10:5-6, God chooses to become O’ Immanu-El with Assyria just like He said He would in chapter 8:6-8. In that chapter God uses Assyria as His “CHOSEN“ones to destroy the hypocritical nations of Judah and Israel.

Notice God says in the verse that He gave Assyria a charge or commandment not only to take the riches from Judah and Israel but also to murder them and viciously runt hem down just like the dirt of the streets. Not only does God tell us that this child is not Jesus, and gives the child’s true name in chapter 8 but God-also warns us in the following verses not to believe the lies of the false prophets such as those of Paul’s and the Greco-Roman Pagan churches of the FUTURE:

  • “And when they shall say unto you, Seek unto them that have familiar spirits, and unto wizards that peep, and that mutter: should not a people seek unto their God? For the living to the dead?TO THE LAW and to the TESTIMONY: if they speak not according to this word, it is because there is no light in them.” ISAIAH 8:19, 20 KJV

GOD SAYS if someone writes a new Doctrine or New Testament that teaches the Jews to follow a new essence of God such as a son of God that is a deity who has the same power of YHWH then the Jews are to deny this new doctrine because: IT IS A LIE!


Is this not what we have done listening to PAUL/SATAN and His False Gospels? It is so wonderful that we do not have to go to any other book than the Bible for God to reveal His truths to us.

My Brothers and Sisters, think about these questions:

1.     If a Miraculous birth was prophesied in the Old Testament about an alleged “virgin” to give birth in the future, wouldn’t the Jews have passed that information down from generation to generation?

2.     If Isaiah had prophesied about such an event wouldn’t there be many false fulfillments of this prophecy by every fornicator who suddenly came up pregnant? I mean the scriptures would have provided the greatest alibi for their sins. They could say: “No I never had sex,Yahweh impregnated me!”

3.     If the Jews believed there was a virgin prophesied in the Old Testament there would be no reason for Joseph to shamefully hide Mary from public view because what Jew would risk stoning an alleged Descendant of the royal bloodline of David?

As you can see only the Gentile Greco-Roman writers would ever believe this lie. The weirdest part of my research about the prophecy of 7:14 was the commentary from Christian theologians themselves on what is actually happening in the true context of Isaiah 7:14. Let me read for you the commentary first from the Tyndale bible:Commentary letter “d” it states:

“The controversial Hebrew word used here refers to Isaiah’s young wife and her newborn son (Isaiah8:14). This of course, was not a virgin birth. God’s sign was that before this child was old enough to talk(verse 4) the two invading kings would be destroyed.” TYNDALE.

So even Christian bibles tell us the truth if we would just read it for ourselves! Now I want you to see that these same writers then give us a so-called double meaning for this chapter, again commentary from the Tyndale bible:

“However,the Gospel of Matthew (1:23)tells us that there was a further fulfillment of this prophecy, in that a virgin (Mary) conceived and bore a son, Immanuel,the Christ, “WE” have-therefore properly used this HIGHER meaning, “VIRGIN,” in verse 14, as otherwise the Matthew account: LOSES IT’S SIGNIFICANCE. TYNDALE.

Now people of God I must ask “HUH??” First,they tell us the truth that Isaiah-was not speaking of Jesus and that the child was Isaiah’s son. Seeing the contradiction in their own words they attempt to offer a better excuse to justify the book of Matthew?

This is getting ridiculous! So they now want us to believe that the false writer of the Book of Matthew can ALSO be correct according to the Book of Isaiah too? They then offer a decree and tell us:

Therefore we have changed the meaning of Isaiah and used the wrong word virgin instead of young woman Isaiah’s wife, OTHERWISE the FALSE WRITER of the book of Matthew’s account LOSES IT’S SIGNIFICANCE. Huh?

In other words the book of Matthew is an OUTRIGHT SATANIC LIE!!  So since these men are our so-called educators andI use that term very loosely, they really expect us to believe there is a“DOUBLE” prophecy in Isaiah’s prophecy. That is totally ridiculous to those whostudy for themselves. My Brothers and Sisters make up your own mind.

Now people of God, if you still think that you can in some way salvage a prophecy of a virgin birth in these verses then ask yourself this important question:

“Who was the “FIRST VIRGIN” to give birth in Isaiah’s lifetime then?”

If you cannot answer that question you must understand that Satan and the false writers have lied to us. It is not your fault. God has shown us His truths from His words. It’s now up to you to learn what the scriptures are really saying. It is no secret to any of you that the Apostle Paul or should I say the“IMPOSTER PAUL” is by far the one person that I have the most problems with as far as contradictory statements concerning Jesus. However Paul gives a written statement concerning Jesus that unknowingly helps destroy the credibility of the virgin birth stories and also proves the original Disciples never wrote those stories in Matthew and Luke.Concerning knowledge of Jesus’ ancestry Paul admits the following:

  • Concerning his Son Jesus Christ our Lord which was made of the seed of David according to the flesh. ROMANS 3:10

Wow! Did you understand what Paul just said??? Paul admits to having no knowledge of a virgin birth! Paul says that Jesus was David’s grandchild not by adoption but “ACCORDING’ to the physical flesh. Translation,Mary had sexual relations and produced a child with Joseph her husband! Amazingisn’t it! Paul wrote approximately 70 percent of the New Testament. Paul never had a problem with lying in those chapters about the ending of the law, Jesus taking away our sins or with Jesus being equal to God. However Paul never lied and said he knew of God supposedly impregnating Mary or even that he knew that Jesus was allegedly born without Mary having literal sexual relations with a human father’s seed i.e. Joseph’s “semen.”

As we close this chapter let’s go over a few key points so that we can have clarity in what has been exposed to us in this chapter for us:

1.   The name “IMMANUEL” was a statement of faith that YHWH would not forsake the house of Judah. (Isaiah 7:14)

2.   The name “IMMANUEL” is used once again when God chose to give power to Assyria to punish Judah for disobedience to God.(Isaiah 8:6-8)

3.   The actual “CHILD” was the sign to King Ahaz not a miraculous birth. (Isaiah 7:16 & Isaiah 8:4)

4.   Isaiah admits that the prophetic child was actually His own son(Isaiah 8:18)

5.   Isaiah 7:14 never said an unmarried woman would be impregnated without a HUMAN father who saves mankind from their sins.

6.   Other than the Non-Hebrew or Aramaic writing of Matthew no other New Testament Gospel makes the mistake of believing a child born without a human father’s sperm cell was an Old Testament prophecy.

7.    God not only blessed Isaiah to be the father of the prophetic child but commands Isaiah to record the child’s true name in his text with witnesses for the world to see: MAHERSHALALHASHBAZ.

8.   The prophecy Isaiah gave to Ahaz was fulfilled in the Old Testament. (2nd Kings 16:8-9, & 17:5-6)

9.   Christian bibles also have openly confirmed the truth in all references bibles that the child is Isaiah’s son.

10.       Christian Theologians have uncovered the falsehood in the Ghostwriter of Matthew’s words and attempted to hide the errors.

11.       If we are to believe Matthew’s story is correct why didn’t the alleged Angel tell Mary and Joseph to name their son “IMMANUEL” instead of Jesus? (Matthew 1:21)

The person who wrote the story in Matthew was not a Hebrew and didn’t have a true knowledge of the language. The writer attempted to either deceive us or bring Judaism and Pagan religions under one flag by adding a little information from all of them. Isaiah 7:14 was not a prophecy for our time frame. Isaiah lived to see this prophecy come true and as you have witnessed the Old Testament bible confirms this fact backed by scriptural verses.

How can you debate those facts? That’s right you can’t. I’m sure there are still those with closed minds who cannot stand change and want us to remain in darkness. Take this chapter and read it again with your bibles open. Read one verse at a time! Do not read all the way to the end of the chapter and then try to come to some sort of conclusion like we were taught in school. Each verse has something to say on its own. You have to pray for a true understanding of the verses. Don’t worry, a light will come on and God will speak through His word.

I hope this note was an eye opener for you. Please don’t continue the lies of the Greco-Roman Church. You know the truth. The truth is supposed to set you free right? Do you want to be free?  Reach each verse for an understanding and YHWH will direct your path…Shalom/Salaam/Selah…

Evidences that Matthew 28:19 Is Fraud

A Collection of Evidence Against the  Traditional Wording of Matthew 28:19

By: Clinton D. Willis CWillis@ipa.net

Sources : http://www.onenesspentecostal.com/matt2819-willis.htm

Same expose in :





Constantine Wrote Matthew 28:19 Into Your Bible!




The Gospel of Matthew, the Fraud!




The Encyclopedia of Religion and Ethics:

As to Matthew 28:19, it says: It is the central piece of evidence for the traditional (Trinitarian) view.  If it were undisputed, this would, of course, be decisive, but its trustworthiness is impugned on grounds of textual criticism, literary criticism and historical criticism. The same Encyclopedia further states that: “The obvious explanation of the silence of the New Testament on the triune name, and the use of another (JESUS NAME) formula in Acts and Paul, is that this other formula was the earlier, and the triune formula is a later addition.”

Edmund Schlink, The Doctrine of Baptism, page 28:

“The baptismal command in its Matthew 28:19 form can not be the historical origin of Christian baptism. At the very least, it must be assumed that the text has been transmitted in a form expanded by the [Catholic] church.”

The Tyndale New Testament Commentaries, I, 275:

“It is often affirmed that the words in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost are not the ipsissima verba [exact words] of Jesus, but…a later liturgical addition.”

Wilhelm Bousset, Kyrios Christianity, page 295:

“The testimony for the wide distribution of the simple baptismal formula [in the Name of Jesus] down into the second century is so overwhelming that even in Matthew 28:19, the Trinitarian formula was later inserted.”

The Catholic Encyclopedia, II, page 263:

“The baptismal formula was changed from the name of Jesus Christ to the words Father, Son, and Holy Spirit by the Catholic Church in the second century.”

Hastings Dictionary of the Bible 1963, page 1015:

“The Trinity.-…is not demonstrable by logic or by Scriptural proofs,…The term Trias was first used by Theophilus of Antioch (c AD 180),…(The term Trinity) not found in Scripture…” “The chief Trinitarian text in the NT is the baptismal formula in Mt 28:19…This late post-resurrection saying, not found in any other Gospel or anywhere else in the NT, has been viewed by some scholars as an interpolation into Matthew. It has also been pointed out that the idea of making disciples is continued in teaching them, so that the intervening reference to baptism with its Trinitarian formula was perhaps a later insertion into the saying. Finally, Eusebius’s form of the (ancient) text (“in my name” rather than in the name of the Trinity) has had certain advocates. (Although the Trinitarian formula is now found in the modern-day book of Matthew), this does not guarantee its source in the historical teaching of Jesus. It is doubtless better to view the (Trinitarian) formula as derived from early (Catholic) Christian, perhaps Syrian or Palestinian, baptismal usage (cf Didache 7:1-4), and as a brief summary of the (Catholic) Church’s teaching about God, Christ, and the Spirit:…”

The Schaff-Herzog Encyclopedia of Religious Knowledge:

“Jesus, however, cannot have given His disciples this Trinitarian order of baptism after His resurrection; for the New Testament knows only one baptism in the name of Jesus (Acts 2:38; 8:16; 10:43; 19:5; Gal. 3:27; Rom. 6:3; 1 Cor. 1:13-15), which still occurs even in the second and third centuries, while the Trinitarian formula occurs only in Matt. 28:19, and then only again (in the) Didache 7:1 and Justin, Apol. 1:61…Finally, the distinctly liturgical character of the formula…is strange; it was not the way of Jesus to make such formulas…the formal authenticity of Matt. 28:19 must be disputed…” page 435.

The Jerusalem Bible, a scholarly Catholic work, states:

“It may be that this formula, (Triune Matthew 28:19) so far as the fullness of its expression is concerned, is a reflection of the (Man-made) liturgical usage established later in the primitive (Catholic) community. It will be remembered that Acts speaks of baptizing “in the name of Jesus,”…”

The International Standard Bible Encyclopedia, Vol. 4, page 2637, Under “Baptism,” says:

Matthew 28:19 in particular only canonizes a later ecclesiastical situation, that its universalism is contrary to the facts of early Christian history, and its Trinitarian formula (is) foreign to the mouth of Jesus.”

New Revised Standard Version says this about Matthew 28:19:

“Modern critics claim this formula is falsely ascribed to Jesus and that it represents later (Catholic) church tradition, for nowhere in the book of Acts (or any other book of the Bible) is baptism performed with the name of the Trinity…”

James Moffett’s New Testament Translation:

In a footnote on page 64 about Matthew 28:19 he makes this statement: “It may be that this (Trinitarian) formula, so far as the fullness of its expression is concerned, is a reflection of the (Catholic) liturgical usage established later in the primitive (Catholic) community, It will be remembered that Acts speaks of baptizing “in the name of Jesus, cf. Acts 1:5 +.”

Tom Harpur:

Tom Harpur, former Religion Editor of the Toronto Star in his “For Christ’s sake,” page 103 informs us of these facts: “All but the most conservative scholars agree that at least the latter part of this command [Triune part of Matthew 28:19] was inserted later. The [Trinitarian] formula occurs nowhere else in the New Testament, and we know from the only evidence available [the rest of the New Testament] that the earliest Church did not baptize people using these words (“in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost”) baptism was “into” or “in” the name of Jesus alone. Thus it is argued that the verse originally read “baptizing them in My Name” and then was expanded [changed] to work in the [later Catholic Trinitarian] dogma. In fact, the first view put forward by German critical scholars as well as the Unitarians in the nineteenth century, was stated as the accepted position of mainline scholarship as long ago as 1919, when Peake’s commentary was first published: “The Church of the first days (AD 33) did not observe this world-wide (Trinitarian) commandment, even if they knew it. The command to baptize into the threefold [Trinity] name is a late doctrinal expansion.”

The Bible Commentary 1919 page 723:

Dr. Peake makes it clear that: “The command to baptize into the threefold name is a late doctrinal expansion. Instead of the words baptizing them in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost we should probably read simply-“into My Name.”

Theology of the New Testament:

By R. Bultmann, 1951, page 133 under Kerygma of the Hellenistic Church and the Sacraments. The historical fact that the verse Matthew 28:19 was altered is openly confesses to very plainly. “As to the rite of baptism, it was normally consummated as a bath in which the one receiving baptism completely submerged, and if possible in flowing water as the allusions of Acts 8:36, Heb. 10:22, Barn. 11:11 permit us to gather, and as Did. 7:1-3 specifically says. According to the last passage, [the apocryphal Catholic Didache] suffices in case of the need if water is three times poured [false Catholic sprinkling doctrine] on the head. The one baptizing names over the one being baptized the name of the Lord Jesus Christ,” later expanded [changed] to the name of the Father, Son, and the Holy Spirit.”

Doctrine and Practice in the Early Church:

By Dr. Stuart G. Hall 1992, pages 20 and 21. Professor Stuart G. Hall was the former Chair of Ecclesiastical History at King’s College, London England. Dr. Hall makes the factual statement that Catholic Trinitarian Baptism was not the original form of Christian Baptism, rather the original was Jesus name baptism. “In the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit,” although those words were not used, as they later are, as a formula. Not all baptisms fitted this rule.” Dr Hall further, states: “More common and perhaps more ancient was the simple, “In the name of the Lord Jesus or, Jesus Christ.” This practice was known among Marcionites and Orthodox; it is certainly the subject of controversy in Rome and Africa about 254, as the anonymous tract De rebaptismate (“On rebaptism”) shows.”

The Beginnings of Christianity: The Acts of the Apostles Volume 1, Prolegomena 1:

The Jewish Gentile, and Christian Backgrounds by F. J. Foakes Jackson and Kirsopp Lake 1979 version pages 335-337. “There is little doubt as to the sacramental nature of baptism by the middle of the first century in the circles represented by the Pauline Epistles, and it is indisputable in the second century. The problem is whether it can in this (Trinitarian) form be traced back to Jesus, and if not what light is thrown upon its history by the analysis of the synoptic Gospels and Acts.

According to Catholic teaching, (traditional Trinitarian) baptism was instituted by Jesus. It is easy to see how necessary this was for the belief in sacramental regeneration. Mysteries, or sacraments, were always the institution of the Lord of the cult; by them, and by them only, were its supernatural benefits obtained by the faithful. Nevertheless, if evidence counts for anything, few points in the problem of the Gospels are so clear as the improbability of this teaching.

The reason for this assertion is the absence of any mention of Christian baptism in Mark, Q, or the third Gospel, and the suspicious nature of the account of its institution in Matthew 28:19: “Go ye into all the world, and make disciples of all Gentiles (nations), baptizing them in the name of the Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit.” It is not even certain whether this verse ought to be regarded as part of the genuine text of Matthew. No other text, indeed, is found in any extant manuscripts, in any language, but it is arguable that Justin Martyr, though he used the trine formula, did not find it in his text of the Gospels; Hermas seems to be unacquainted with it; the evidence of the Didache is ambiguous, and Eusebius habitually, though not invariably, quotes it in another form, “Go ye into all the world and make diciples of all the Gentiles in My Name.”

No one acquainted with the facts of textual history and patristic evidence can doubt the tendency would have been to replace the Eusebian text (In My Name) by the ecclesiastical (Catholic Trinitarian) formula of baptism, so that transcriptional evedence” is certainly on the side of the text omitting baptism.

But it is unnecessary to discuss this point at length, because even if the ordinary (modern Trinity) text of Matthew 28:19 be sound it can not represent historical fact.

Would they have baptized, as Acts says that they did, and Paul seem to confirm the statement, in the name of the Lord Jesus if the Lord himself had commanded them to use the (Catholic Trinitarian) formula of the Church? On every point the evidence of Acts is convincing proof that the (Catholic) tradition embodied in Matthew 28:19 is a late (non-Scriptural Creed) and unhistorical.

Neither in the third gospel nor in Acts is there any reference to the (Catholic Trinitarian) Matthaean tradition, nor any mention of the institution of (Catholic Trinitarian) Christian baptism. Nevertheless, a little later in the narrative we find several references to baptism in water in the name of the Lord Jesus as part of recognized (Early) Christian practice. Thus we are faced by the problem of a Christian rite, not directly ascribed to Jesus, but assumed to be a universal (and original) practice. That it was so is confirmed by the Epistles, but the facts of importance are all contained in Acts.”

Also in the same book on page 336 in the footnote number one, Professor Lake makes an astonishing discovery in the so-called Teaching or Didache. The Didache has an astonishing contradiction that is found in it. One passage refers to the necessity of baptism in the name of the Lord, which is Jesus the other famous passage teaches a Trinitarian Baptism. Lake raises the probability that the apocryphal Didache or the early Catholic Church Manual may have also been edited or changed to promote the later Trinitarian doctrine. It is a historical fact that the Catholic Church at one time baptized its converts in the name of Jesus but later changed to Trinity baptism.

“1. In the actual description of baptism in the Didache the trine (Trinity) formula is used; in the instructions for the Eucharist (communion) the condition for admission is baptism in the name of the Lord. It is obvious that in the case of an eleventh-century manuscript *the trine formula was almost certain to be inserted in the description of baptism, while the less usual formula had a chance of escaping notice when it was only used incidentally.”

The Catholic University of America in Washington, D. C. 1923, New Testament Studies Number 5:

The Lord’s Command To Baptize An Historical Critical Investigation. By Bernard Henry Cuneo page 27. “The passages in Acts and the Letters of St. Paul. These passages seem to point to the earliest form as baptism in the name of the Lord.” Also we find. “Is it possible to reconcile these facts with the belief that Christ commanded his disciples to baptize in the trine form? Had Christ given such a command, it is urged, the Apostolic Church would have followed him, and we should have some trace of this obedience in the New Testament. No such trace can be found. The only explanation of this silence, according to the anti-traditional view, is this the short christological (Jesus Name) formula was (the) original, and the longer trine formula was a later development.”

A History of The Christian Church:

1953 by Williston Walker former Professor of Ecclesiastical History at Yale University. On page 95 we see the historical facts again declared. “With the early disciples generally baptism was “in the name of Jesus Christ.” There is no mention of baptism in the name of the Trinity in the New Testament, except in the command attributed to Christ in Matthew 28:19. That text is early, (but not the original) however. It underlies the Apostles’ Creed, and the practice recorded (*or interpolated) in the Teaching, (or the Didache) and by Justin. The Christian leaders of the third century retained the recognition of the earlier form, and, in Rome at least, baptism in the name of Christ was deemed valid, if irregular, certainly from the time of Bishop Stephen (254-257).”

On page 61 Professor and Church historian Walker, reviles the true origin and purpose of Matthew 28:19. This Text is the first man-made Roman Catholic Creed that was the prototype for the later Apocryphal Apostles’ Creed. Matthew 28:19 was invented along with the Apocryphal Apostles’ Creed to counter so-called heretics and Gnostics that baptized in the name of Jesus Christ! Marcion although somewhat mixed up in some of his doctrine still baptized his converts the Biblical way in the name of Jesus Christ. Matthew 28:19 is the first non-Biblical Roman Catholic Creed! The spurious Catholic text of Matthew 28:19 was invented to support the newer triune, Trinity doctrine. Therefore, Matthew 28:19 is not the “Great Commission of Jesus Christ.” Matthew 28:19 is the great Catholic hoax! Acts 2:38, Luke 24:47, and 1 Corinthians 6:11 give us the ancient original words and teaching of Yeshua/Jesus! Is it not also strange that Matthew 28:19 is missing from the old manuscripts of Sinaiticus, Curetonianus and Bobiensis?

“While the power of the episcopate and the significance of churches of apostolical (Catholic) foundation was thus greatly enhanced, the Gnostic crisis saw a corresponding development of (man-made non-inspired spurious) creed, at least in the West. Some form of instruction before baptism was common by the middle of the second century. At Rome this developed, apparently, between 150 and 175, and probably in opposition to Marcionite Gnosticism, into an explication of the baptismal formula of Matthew 28:19 the earliest known form of the so-called Apostles Creed.”

Catholic Cardinal Joseph Ratzinger:

He makes this confession as to the origin of the chief Trinity text of Matthew 28:19. “The basic form of our (Matthew 28:19 Trinitarian) profession of faith took shape during the course of the second and third centuries in connection with the ceremony of baptism. So far as its place of origin is concerned, the text (Matthew 28:19) came from the city of Rome.” The Trinity baptism and text of Matthew 28:19 therefore did not originate from the original Church that started in Jerusalem around AD 33. It was rather as the evidence proves a later invention of Roman Catholicism completely fabricated. Very few know about these historical facts.

“The Demonstratio Evangelica” by Eusebius:

Eusebius was the Church historian and Bishop of Caesarea. On page 152 Eusebius quotes the early book of Matthew that he had in his library in Caesarea. According to this eyewitness of an unaltered Book of Matthew that could have been the original book or the first copy of the original of Matthew. Eusebius informs us of Jesus’ actual words to his disciples in the original text of Matthew 28:19: “With one word and voice He said to His disciples: “Go, and make disciples of all nations in My Name, teaching them to observe all things whatsover I have commanded you.” That “Name” is Jesus.


Matthew 28:19


Absolute proof Matthew 28:19 has been corrupted by trinitarians
Trinitarians have sinned against Jesus Christ For putting words in the Bible HE NEVER SAID

By Dr. G. Reckart, Apostolic Theological Bible College


Source : http://jesus-messiah.com/apologetics/catholic/matthew-proof.html

For over 20 years I have predicted the time would come when evidence would prove that the words “of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghostwere added to Matthew’s original Gospel.  It did not make sense to me for baptism to be in the name of the one who died and was resurrected in Romans 6 and the Father and Holy Ghost had to be mentioned in baptism.  I could not reconcile why the Apostles ignored Matthew 28:19 as it now exist in our KJV Bible and instead baptized in the name of Jesus Christ only.  Yes, in baptism they were “JESUS ONLY.” No one can find any other baptism in the New Testament.  No one can deny there is then ONE BAPTISM when reference is made to the New Testament mikvah.  Now we have the evidence and the trinity world is in for a massive shaking.

It was known by the Catholic Church that the Jews had preserved a copy of the original Gospel of Matthew in the Hebrew language.  How this was preserved and handed down we do not know.  In fact, it does not matter.  It exists and that is proof enough that God wanted it preserved.  There have been many attempts to destroy the credibility of this very valuable Hebrew Gospel for obvious reasons.  It is the only existing manuscript that proves Matthew 28:19 did not originally contain the trinitarian baptismal formula. Catholics and Protestants have no other reason to cast doubt on the validity of this manuscript.  Claims that it is spurious are of course self-serving to trinitarians.  Such denials make Jesus say what he did not say.  This of itself is an abomination.  It is a sin to make Jesus say a trinitarian baptismal formula and put into  his mouth their trinitarian godhead doctrine fabricated at Nicaea in 325AD.  Now that this manuscript is known among the Apostolic Oneness, we will promote the fact that the Catholic Church has willingly lied about Matthew 28:19 and the Catholics in general (including the Eastern Orthodox) have lied to the world.  Everyone who was baptized with this false baptism has died lost and without salvation, deceived by the Catholic Church.  This damnation of millions is the greatest doctrinal deception ever placed upon the human mind.  If those in trinitarianism do not flee from this perversion and be rebaptized in the name of Jesus Christ, they accept their damnation of having no salvation in that false baptism.  It is because of this finding that many Evangelicals now claim baptism is not essential to salvation and a person can be saved without it.  This Baptist false doctrine was developed when their scholars discovered the trinity baptismal formula was not in the original Hebrew Gospel of Matthew. Interesting that a false doctrine could be birthed based upon what is not in the Bible, rather then what is in the Bible.  Trinitarians hid the knowledge of this Hebrew Gospel from the Oneness Apostolics.  But God made it possible that through a Baptist scholar, the truth about the missing trinitarian baptismal formula would be published.

In 1995 Dr. George Howard translated a copy of Shem Tov’s Matthew Hebrew Gospel.  You may purchase a copy of “Hebrew Gospel of Matthew” from many sources.  You can look at the evidence for yourself.  For the first time in modern history the text of Matthew 28:19 from this Hebrew Gospel text is being posted on the internet.  I am the first to post this text.  I am sure others will steal my image files and go make their own page.  That’s ok, but at least have the fairness to tell me you are taking it.  At least tell me you are going to make a page.  At least give me credit for being the first to post it.

Please note that in verse 19 there is no trinitarian formula.
This is ABSOLUTE proof the trinity was fraudulently added to this text

Now that you have seen the evidence, you who have been baptized in the false trinitarian formula must see Acts 2:38 as the true and only baptismal formula in the New Testament, and to which all other incidents of this grace of God in subsequent text points.  If you desire to follow the correct New Testament Baptismal method, email me and we will try to arrange for your baptism.  You now have the information.  If you choose to believe a lie and accept a false baptism, then you will damn you own soul.  I urge you to consider your rebaptism today.  You can email me at acts0412@jmfi.org for a personal consultation about this matter.

Christian’s Tricks : How The Christians Transformed Jesus into GOD/YHWH using a false translation.

Christian’s Tricks : How The Christians Transformed Jesus into GOD/YHWH by using a false translation.

This essay will EASILY expose THE Magic/Trick used on how Christians DECEITFULLY and SUCCESSFULLY duped innocent folks into believing that Jesus is the same as YHWH / God. How they transformed Jesus as “God/YHWH” using a simple trick (Fallacy of equivocation).

“and in their greed they will exploit you with false words;.” (2 Peter 2:3 NIV ).

Much of the Trinitarian deception is afforded by word trickery. It is a clever word game that uses the same words but shifts the definitions attached to those words; it is a game that shifts the concepts behind those letters. This game of concept shifting is best demonstrated with the fallacious “Jesus is God” routine. This statement means two different things in Trinitarianism and Trinitarians shift back and forth-between both meanings when promoting their apologetic. At one moment, “Jesus is God” means “Jesus is divine by nature” and in the next moment it means “Jesus is God by identity.” One statement answers “what” he is and the other “who” he is. Indeed, leading Trinitarian scholars insist the words “and the Word was God” at John 1:1mean “and the Word was divine by nature.” In fact, the word “God” necessarily means “divine by nature” for the Trinitarian at John 17:3. In other words, they try to make sure the word “God” does not refer to an identity. Trinitarians do the same thing in the statement, “Jesus is both God and man.” Here,the word “man” refers to Jesus’ nature and so does the word “God.” The statement actually means, “Jesus is both divine by nature and human by nature.” It is a statement referring to “what” Jesus is. Trinitarians continually change definitions between implicitly defining “God” as “who” and then implicitly defining “God” as “what” during their argumentation. Fallacy of equivocation. Words have concepts behind them. These concepts can be deceptively shifted by false teachers like a moving curtain behind a scene. Perhaps you have seen old movies where a car is not really moving but the scene behind them is moving and so it appears the car is moving. It is a clever illusion, a deception. Written words themselves do not contain their own concepts but are given concepts by the human beings using those sets of letters. The concepts are behind the written words. Concepts, definitions, are attached to those words. When human beings see written letters on a page, or hear audible words spoken, they must assume the concept which is being attached to a word. So if one says, “I was chairman of the board,” we know the word “board”has a certain concept attached to it that is quite different than, “I was hit over the head by a board. “In such a case, it is quite easy to see there are two different concepts attached to an identical set of letters. We simply changed the scene behind the word because the context demanded it. Both words are appear exactly the same to our eyes and sound the same to our ears but the concepts behind the words are very, very different. In this case, it was quite easy to see the difference. But this is not always the case. Sometimes, when we are speaking with someone, they will use a definition of a word that means one thing and we are assuming another thing. Such is the case with the statement, “Jesus is God. “When English speaking readers see the word “God” they immediately assume that someone is being identified because the capitalized word “God” looks and behaves like a name and we use names to identify people and implicitly answer a question which begins with “Who?  “However, Trinitarians use the very same word to mean “Who” in one breath and to mean something entirely different in the next. The Trinitarian apologetic is largely based on the idea that Jesus has a divine nature, that is, the nature of deity. This idea refers to what he is, not who he is. However, Trinitarians use the statement, “Jesus is God” to make the assertion that Jesus is divine by nature. This is extremely deceptive because people are duped into believing Jesus is being identified as “God” because English speakers have been trained to assume someone is being identified when they see a capitalized word that looks and behaves like a capitalized name. Trinitarians afford this word game by shifting back and forth between both concepts and few people ever notice the difference. What Trinitarians try to do is demonstrate that Jesus has a divine nature by using the statement, “Jesus is God. “Here they are referring to “what” he is, not “who” he is. There is no problem in doing this as long as their line of argumentation is correct. However, once they are successful in accomplishing their goal, they then proceed to conclude that have proved “Jesus is God” but now they suggestively imply they have proved Jesus is God by identity. They wish to claim they have proved Jesus is the one God who created the universe. Hence, they suggest that since they have proved what he is, they have proved who he is by using the very same words. In short, they deceive others by shifting the concept behind the words implicitly and suggestively whenever it is convenient for them to do so. The extent of this deceptive illusion can be demonstrated from a Biblical truth. When God created Adam and Eve, He named them both “adam” (Gen 1:27; 5:2). The word“adam” is the Hebrew word for humanity, human being, both male and female. It is essentiallyequivalent to our English word “human.” So we can say “Eve was adam” which means “Eve was human.” It refers to Eve’s human nature. However, as soon as we say “Eve was Adam,” we are making a huge mistake because the capitalized word “Adam” refers to Eve’s husband and is not a word used to refer to Eve’s human nature. The word “Adam” answers the question “Who?” The word “adam” answers the question“What?” However, Trinitarians succeed in using the capitalized word “God” to identify God and to refer to the divine nature of God. The parallel use of the word “Adam” would be to use that capitalized word to refer both to Eve’s nature and to Eve’s husband. So if we used the word “Adam” like Trinitarians use the word “God” we could say “Eve was “Adam” meaning Eve was human. And then once we have proved Eve was human with the words “Eve was Adam,” we would then proceed to claim Eve is to be identified as “Adam.” And we would be quite dishonest to do so. This is what Trinitarians are doing with the capitalized word “God.” Illustrating the Deception: Qualitative and Quantiative Terms The word adam is the Hebrew word for “human,” whether male or female. Adam was actually called “the adam” in the Bible just as God was called “the god.” Thus, Adam was adam, Eve was adam, and Seth was adam. Adam was human, Eve was human and Seth was human. The word adam is here used in a qualitative sense. It is also correct to write, “Adam was Adam.” This is a quantitative use of the same word. It sounds the same as the qualitative sense but the capital letter changed the intent of the word from qualitative to quantitative. Since Adam is quantitatively the person Adam, we can say Adam is Adam. However, it is completely incorrect to say, “Eve was Adam,” or “Seth was Adam.” This would be a totally inappropriate use of English capitalization conventions and would mislead the reader into thinking that Eve and/or Seth are being identified as the person Adam. So while we can write, “Eve was adam,” we cannot write “Eve was Adam.” Hence, to be honest and true to readers we must ensure that we do not capitalize the word “adam” when we are using the word in a qualitative sense. The word “adam” is not a name but the word “Adam” is a name. Although they sound the same they signal different ideas. The very same thing is true with the word “God.” Although it sounds like a qualitative word when spoken, it behaves like a name and signals a quantiative entity when written.  The word “God” is just as misleading as the word “Adam” when the word “god” is intended instead just as the word “adam” is intended instead.


Note carefully how a capital letter changed everything. A capitalized word in English has much power and suggestive meaning and the misuse of capitalization can lead to quietly constructed yet tremendous blunders.


The Power of Suggestion Quantitative names identifying persons sound exactly like qualitative words describing attributes.  The statement, “It is Sandy” sounds just like “It is sandy.” However, these two statements mean two completely different things and if we misuse these terms we commit the deceptive fallacy of equivocation. In the same way, “Jesus is god” meaning “Jesus is divine by nature,” sounds just like “Jesus is God,” meaning “Jesus is that personal being God by identity. “Saying “Jesus is god” is the same as saying “Eve was adam” and saying “Jesus is God” is the same as saying, “Eve was Adam.” Therefore, if we were speaking out loud to someone they would not even know the difference between those two statements. So if a Trinitarian demonstrates Jesus was god and then proceeds to claim he has proven that Jesus was God, and since you cannot see the capital letter that is spoken and not written, a person listening to such words could be easily duped. And even worse, the written statement “Jesus is God,” meaning “Jesus is divine,” is identical to “Jesus is God,” meaning “Jesus is God by identity.” They are identical statements which mean two different things. There are two different concepts behind the words. The two statements both sound and look exactly the same but convey concepts which describe two completely different ideas.  This is how Trinitarians do their trickery. They claim Jesus is divine by nature by saying, and writing, “Jesus is God” when they are referring to his nature. However, this has exactly the same ring to human ears, and to the human mind which hears these words when read, as the statement “Jesus is God” when used to indicate who the Word was by identity. So Trinitarians suggestively imply they have proved Jesus is “God” by identity and because the two statements look, sound, and have the exact same ring for both meanings of “Jesus is God”, this illusion is quite persuasive and subtlely effective. Hence, innocent folks are easily duped by this fallacy. Having the divine nature of God does not make one God by identity anymore than having the nature of Adam makes one Adam by identity. In fact, the Bible explicitly teaches that we too will share the divine nature of God when we are resurrected. This does not mean we will be God. In fact, the Bible teaches explicitly that we are already partakers of the divine nature. This does not make us “God” anymore than it makes Jesus “God.” The capitalized word “God” is a word which translates “the god” in Greek and is reserved for the Father of Jesus Christ. This is but one example of the many fallacies employed by Trinitarians. When exploring Trinitarian doctrine and when dialoguing with Trinitarians, one must be extremely guarded and careful concerning their statements and their crafty terminology. The suggestively shift the meanings of words like “God” and “being” halfway through their argumentation process. The result is a completely fallacious conclusion that sounds totally correct to the unwary listener who is thereby left completely deceived by their illusions.

The Child of Promise – Was It Ishma-El? or Isaac?


“ISAAC OR Ishma-El”

It is the twenty first century and the Jews and Muslims are in a bitter war of attrition. The rest of the world watches as these two genetic brothers go to great lengths to gain the upper hand so that they can destroy each other and wipe their own brethren from the planet. Now we have all heard many different stories as to why this is so. However, what is the correct story? Why do the Muslims and Jews fight?

After doing research, I have come to the conclusion that the Muslims and Jews are fighting because of one event in the bible that single handedly changed their family structure for generations to come. The adversary/Satan knows the scriptures much better than we will ever know. With his knowledge of scriptures about the past, Satan will do anything to change the scriptures of God! Satan is not one singular being. Satan is anyone who changes the word of God or goes against it. The New Testament is not the only book where the scribes are guilty of biblical tampering. The original Jews also tampered with the Old Testament bible and God punished them for it severely.Yes, I know this seems hard to believe but it’s true. God tells us many times in the Bible where He destroyed the people of Israel and Judah because the”LEADERS and PROPHETS” led them astray. In this chapter we will learn two important new things.

1.    It may have been Ishmael and not Isaac that Abraham originally offered as a sacrifice on the altar.
2.    Jealousy may have been the caused of the separation of Abraham’s original family structure.
3.    Just like Jacob stole the birthright from Esau, the descendants of Isaac may have stole the birthright and inheritance from Ishmael.
4.    The sons of Isaac may have switched the biblical names because of greed or other reasons unknown.

Now how much of this can I really prove? Well, I don’t really know. All I am trying to do with this publication is show you the evidence at hand and show you why I believe these stories have also been edited. So let’s go to the bible and see if we can decipher clues from the written story in the book of Genesis…


As we look at Genesis 15:3, Abram is childless and is asking God to allow the child of one of his servants Eliezer to become his own child. God denies that request and promises Abram that he will indeed have a child from his own body and bloodline. In verses 5-17 God gave Abram a glimpse into the future. God told Abram that he will have more children than the stars and that these children will come to suffer. Now let’s start at verse 18:

  • In the same day the LORD made a COVENANT with Abram, saying, unto thy “SEED” have I given this land, from the river of Egypt unto the great river, the great Euphrates. GENESIS 16:18

God promised to give Abram’s children a massive amount of land that stretches from Egypt all the way to the Euphrates River. In verses 19 thru 21, God gives even more detailed information of the land the children shall have. Please notice that there are no children born before this prophecy. In Chapter 16:1, Abram’s wife Sarai gives her handmaid Hagar to Abram to be his second wife. Abram agrees to this request because he recalls the prophecy that God has told Him ten years earlier. Abram and Hagar bring forth the fulfillment of God’s prophecy of Abram having a child from his own loins. Verses 4 through 6 show us the discord between Abram’s first wife, Sarai, and his second wife Hagar. Even though Hagar is Abram’s wife too she is to be submissive to the first wife. She is arrogant and flaunts the pregnancy in Sarai’s face. Abram permits Sarai to severely beat Hagar until she is forced to run away. God dispatches the Angel to Hagar’s aid:

  • And the angel of the Lord said unto her; return to thy mistress and submit thyself under her hands. GENESIS 16:9

God will not allow Hagar to leave because she is carrying Abram’s promised child in her. She commanded by the Angel of God to humble herself and return back to Sarai.

  • And the angel of the Lord said unto “HER” I will multiply thy“SEED” exceedingly, that it shall not be “NUMBERED” for multitude. GENESIS 16:10

God says return with the promised child of Abraham. He promises Hagar that her seed will be so great that no man can number. Didn’t God say the exact same thing to Abraham about their seed? Now look at the next verse as the Angel says the same thing to Hagar as God promised Abram ten years earlier:

  • And he brought him forth abroad, and said, Look now toward heaven, and tell the stars, if thou be able to “NUMBER” them so shall thy “SEED” be. GENESIS 15:5

God has spoken to both Abram and his wife Hagar on the same subject of how great the multitude of their children will be. A number so great that neither one of them will be able to number.

  • And the angel of the Lord said unto “HER” Behold, thou art with CHILD and shalt bear a son, and shalt call his name ISHMAEL because the Lord has heard thy affliction. GENESIS 16:11

The Angel tells Hagar that she is with the promised child of Abraham and also what the child’s name is to be; Ishmael. What does the name Ishmael mean in Hebrew?

“ISHMAEL”: Hebrew name meaning “ God hears:

Amazing, the name Ishmael means: God hears. Remember again, the angel told Hagar the name of the child, she did not come up with the name on her own. This lets us know that Ishmael is God’s answer to Abram’s prayers.Wow! What a revelation!

Now Abram and Hagar are on the same page because the scriptures let us know that it is Abram the father who determines the name of the child.We also know the name is the same that is told to Hagar as well:

  • And Hagar bare Abram a son: and Abram called “HIS SON’S”name “ISHMAEL. GENESIS 16:11

We see that Ishmael is not an illegitimate child, He is the offspring of his married mother and father; the child of promise:

  • And Abram was “FOUR SCORE AND SIX” years old when Hagar bare “ISHMAEL.” to Abram. GENESIS 16:16

Abram was 86 years old when Hagar gave him a son. Again whose son? It is Abram’s son Ishmael period. Now let’s move on to chapter 17.

  • And when Abram was “NINETY and NINE” years old, the lord appeared to Abram, and said I am the Almighty God; walk before me, and be thou perfect! And I will make my covenant between me and thee, and will multiply thee exceedingly.GENESIS 17:1, 2

Notice the very first word “AND” is used to show us the continuation of verse 16 of the previous chapter. Thirteen years have passed and Abram is ninety-nine years old. We do not have a history of all that went on in the pass thirteen years so things are left to speculation at this point.Maybe false gods were springing up in the land where Abram resided and Abram might have thought of turning to one of them. There has to be a reason for God to reappear to Abram to tell him again that it is He alone that is the Almighty God? We really don’t know…


God makes a promise to Abram. If Abram will continue follow Him,God says the covenant that He made with Abram will come true and that He would multiply Abrams health, wealth, bloodline, and prosperity in great abundance.

  • As for me, behold my covenant is with thee, and thou shalt be a father of many nations. GENESIS 17:4

God is reaffirming His promise to Abram about his children’s future.

  • Neither shall thy name any more be called Abram, but thy name shall be Abraham; for a father of many nations have I made thee. GENESIS 17:5

Abram is now Abraham because God has already made Him a father of many nations. Clearly it has already begun and Isaac is nowhere in the picture. In verses 6 thru 9, God promises Abraham that His seed will produce great kings and great nations. The covenant will not only be with Abraham but with all of his children and their children: What is that covenant?

  • This is “MY COVENANT” which ye shall keep, between me and you and thy seed after thee; every man child among you shall be “CIRCUMCISED” And ye shall circumcise the flesh of your foreskin; and it shall be a “TOKEN” of the covenant betwixt me and you. GENESIS 17:10, 11

The circumcision ritual is to be done as a token or pact between God and Abraham. Notice how Isaac is not even a fore thought while God is making the promise of making Abraham’s seed a great nation and kings.

From verses 9 thru 14 God speaks of the covenant and the rituals that all of Abraham’s children and servant and all that dwell in His household must do to honor the covenant. In verse 15 God will not exclude Abraham’s first wife Sarai from the promise. He then changes Sarai’s name to Sarah. Then next verse is very insightful:

  • And I will bless her, and give thee a son “ALSO” of her: Yea, I will bless her, and she shall be a mother of nation; kings of people shall be of her. GENESIS 17:16

Although the promised child was Ishmael, God refuses to leave Sarah out of the fold and blesses her as well. God informs Abraham that He will “ALSO” give him an additional son by his first wife Sarah too.

  • Then Abraham fell upon his face, and laughed, and said in his heart, shall a child be born unto him that is an hundred years old? And shall Sarah that is ninety years old bear? GENESIS 17:17

This verse is very shocking in its revelations to the world. The verse let’s us know that Abraham never expected another child from God to be the child of the promise.

God was quite clear thirteen years earlier when He promised Abraham a son and that the promised child was to be called Ishmael. When God decided to include Sarah and another child, Abraham had to laugh because he thought he had become too old to sire another child. Abraham assumes the angel of the Lord was mistaken:

  • And Abraham said unto God, O that “ISHMAEL” might live before thee. GENESIS 17:18

God was not taking Ishmael away from Abraham; He is just adding another seed to the promise:

  • And God said, Sarah thy wife shall bear thee a son indeed; and thou shalt call his name “ISAAC” and I will establish my covenant with him for an everlasting covenant, and with his seed after him. GENESIS 17:19

The way this verse is translated has caused so much strife between the children of Ishmael/Muslims, and the children of Isaac/Jews, for centuries…

Is God claiming that the promise is only with Isaac in this verse? Of course not! As concerning Isaac, Genesis 17:16 said the word: “ALSO”about Sarah’s child being included as one of Abraham’s many promised children.God will establish His covenant with Sarah’s child too along with Hagar’s son Ishmael.  The Jews thought this verse was solely speaking of Isaac being the sole beneficiary of the promise. This is not true. Notice in verse 18, Abraham thought something was to happen to the first child of the promise Ishmael. God lets the world know that Ishmael too was included in the original promise:

  • And as for “ISHMAEL” I have “HEARD THEE” I have blessed him, and will make him fruitful, and will multiply him exceedingly’ twelve princes shall he beget, and I will make him a great nation.  GENESIS 17:20

Remember, the original promise God made to Abraham was that He would multiply his seed, which He has, and that He would give Abraham’s children vast amounts of land. That is all. God eases Abraham’s fears about Ishmael and assures Abraham nothing is going to happen to him. God promises to bless Ishmael and to make great nations and kings from Him. Common sense should tell us that in order for Ishmael’s seed to be kings of great nations then they would have to have great amounts of land also. Duh!


  • But my covenant will I establish with “ISAAC” which Sarah shall bear unto thee at this set time in the next year. And he left off talking with him and God went up from Abraham.  GENESIS 17:21, 22

Now I ask you:

“Is it possible for the children of Isaac to have added these two verses to show their dominance?”

Doesn’t it seem very strange that no explanation is given to Abraham accept an: “I said so” answer? Let’s look at the next verse for clues:

  • And Abraham took “ISHMAEL HIS SON” and all that were born in his house, and all that were male among the men of Abraham’s house; and circumcised the flesh of their foreskin in the “SAME DAY” as God had said unto Him. GENESIS 17:23

Why circumcise Ishmael if he were not to be part of the Covenant and promise of God? It would seem that verses 21, 22 may be additions by vain Jewish scribes because it would seem the scriptures have much more clarity without those additional verses. Without those added verses we can deduct:

  1. God decides to include Sarah’s child also into the promise.
  1.  Abraham gets nervous about the fate of His son Ishmael.
  1.  God reassures Abraham of Ishmael’s promised destiny.
  1. Abraham on the “SAME DAY” circumcised his then only child Ishmael and all the men of His household as proof of his covenant with God.

As you can see all of these biblical points are proof that Ishmael was the initial first heir to the promises of God. Now you know…


  • Abraham was ninety-nine years old when he was circumcised in the flesh of his foreskin. GENESIS 17:24

The Scriptures state that Abraham was “99” years old when the COVENANT is established.  Now we see that makes Abraham’s son Ishmael 13 years old. Now how old is Isaac atthis time? That’s right you guess it, Isaac was NOT even conceived as of yet. The scriptures make it clear for us:

  • Abraham was a hundred years old when his son Isaac was born to him. GENESIS 21:5

This means during the circumcision/sacrifice, Abraham’s only “begotten” son is Ishmael and not Isaac, as the “Jewish” scribes/men would have us to believe.

Now all strife between the sons of Abraham happened when evil entered Sarah and she decided to destroy Abraham’s first child!

  • And Sarah said, God hath made me to laugh so that all that hear will laugh with me. And she said, who would have said unto Abraham that Sarah should have given children suck? For I have born him a son in his old age. GENESIS 21:6, 7

Sarah is very happy and glad to show the world that she was able to finally bare a son to her husband. She can now raise her head up high again,because she has a child of her own. Now that she has a child there is one too many children in this household! Satan slips in the back door!

  • And Sarah saw the son of Hagar the Egyptian, which she had born unto Abraham mocking. GENESIS 21:9

Sarah says:

“What? You, a lowly child of a slave are making fun of my child? YOU MUST GO!”

  • Wherefore she said unto Abraham, “CAST OUT” this bondwoman and her “SON!” for the son of the bondwoman shall “NOT” be “HEIR” with “MY SON even with Isaac!GENESIS 21:10

Wow, is it possible that from a little harmless teasing from one child to another allowed Satan to enter Sarah and command her Husband to end His marital relationship with his second wife and cheat a little child out of His promised inheritance? I do not know, all we know is Sarah says:

“That slave’s son will NEVER be an heir with mine!” Sarah in her outrage tells Abraham that Ishmael shall not be even or better said: “EQUAL”with her son! Wow, A potential cat fight in the making!

Hence, Abraham is forced to grievously give in to Sarah and force his wife Hagar and son Ishmael to depart into a treacherous desert to fend for themselves. Wow, all of this because of the jealously of one spoiled and envious woman. It would be so sad that this woman could possibly be the cause of the children of Abraham’s fighting to this very day and not accepting each other as legitimate children of the bloodline of Abraham. All of this is speculation and for general exploration, so please don’t take this as necessarily the truth. God allows Abraham to submit to Sarah’s wishes and again proves that Ishmael is a child of the Promise despite what Sarah wishes. Look as God includes both children:

  • …Hearken unto her voice; for in “ISAAC” shall thy seed be called and “ALSO” of the “SON” of the bondwoman will I make a nation, because “HE” is “THY SEED. GENESIS 21:12, 13

Can we say anymore on these two verses? Clearly God tells Abraham to do what Sarah commands and not to worry; Ishmael will be protected by Him and flourish like God promised thirteen years ago. Why will God do all this for Abraham? God says: “…because “HE” is “THY SEED.” AMEN…

As we continue, Abraham sends his wife and firstborn child away into the wilderness of Beersheba. With water and food supplies depleted Hagar cries out to her God for assistance. The angel of the Lord consoles her and let’s her know that God heard the child’s voice. God then reaffirms the promise to her:

  • Arise, lift up the lad, and hold him in thine hand: for I will make him (Ishmael) a “GREAT NATION.” GENESIS 21:18

God then provides water and food for Hagar and Ishmael to continue in the desert. The bible then let’s us know that God was always with Ishmael the child of the promise all His days.The bible leaves us no clue of what happens to Ishmael from then on and possibly by a vain scholar takes on a more singular Pro-Judaism view of the heritage of only Isaac. In verse 22, the bible says God decides to tempt Abraham. Notice however how the writer in a subtle fashion decides to forget about the existence of Abraham’s first born promised child altogether:

  • And he said, take now thy son, thine “ONLY SON” Isaac, whom thou lovest, and get thee into the land of Moriah and offer him there for a burnt offering upon one of the mountains which I will tell thee of. GENESIS 22:2

The bible just told us that God took care of Abraham’s son in the desert while He grew up. Did Ishmael all of a sudden die? Did God really call Isaac Abraham’s only son or did the pen of the scribes add this? Abraham knew he had two children, and it was God that gave them too Abraham as well? So would it make it sense to say God made such a statement as your “ONLY” son? Again this calls for speculation for the reader. Notice again how the writer makes God to claim that Isaac is Abraham’s only son again:

  • …For I know that thou fearest God, seeing thou hast not withheld thy son, thine “ONLY SON” from me. 16 …By myself have I sworn, saith the Lord, for because thou hast done this thing, and hast not withheld thy son thine “ONLY SON. GENESIS 22:12&16

The writer was really trying to hammer his point across wasn’t he?  It wasn’t clear enough that Isaac was Abraham’s son; the writer wanted us to know that Isaac alone was Abraham’s“ONLY SON.”  Again just an observation…

The writer of the verse above wants us to believe that Isaac was Abraham’s only son. I must ask you to decide: “Is Isaac Abraham’s “ONLY” son?”

According to the word of God Isaac is not Abraham’s only child. The scriptures make it very clear even after Abraham’s death Ishmael was considered a Legitimate “SON” of Abraham:

  • And his (SONS) ISAAC and “ISHMAEL” buried him (Abraham) in the cave of Machpelah, in the field of Ephron the son of Zohar the Hittite, which is before Mamre. GENESIS 25:9

Here together both of Abraham’s children; Ishmael and Isaac AS ONE, (Plural) burying their father. I pray that I am not offending the Jewish people or the Muslim people in anything that I have said. All that I am attempting to do is offer reconciliation between the offspring of the two legitimate children of Abraham.

The Jews believed Ishmael to be a bastard child and not entitled to the promises of God. Even the New Testament writers decided not to include Ishmael in the promise:

  • By faith Abraham, when he was tried, offered up Isaac: and he that had received the promises offered up his “ONLY”begotten son.  HEBREWS 11:17

The writer of Hebrew is incorrect because we have the confirmation by God in Chapter 25:9, that Ishmael was in fact a legitimate son. Even after Abraham died the promises of God were with Ishmael for the Holy Scripture says I will make great Nations from Ishmael.

  • And ALSO of the SON of the bondwoman will I make a nation, because he (Ishmael) is THY SEED. GENESIS 21:13

Have you noticed the words from the Almighty God that says ALSO? By YHWH saying the word “ALSO” this entitles Ishmael and his seed the royal inheritance from God that Isaac also has. Why? Because YHWH himself says that Ishmael is ABRAHAM’S (SON!)  Now if YHWH says this is so, who are we to say it is not the truth? Will you call God a LIAR?  I hope not.

Read/Seek to find the truth that God has for each and every one of us.  Do not rely on the Preacher or me for your understanding of God for we are only men.

Good Friday is a Myth; Jesus Died on a Wednesday???

Good Friday is a Myth;
Jesus Died on a Wednesday ??

by Roy A. Reinhold
Source : http://ad2004.com/prophecytruths/Articles/Prophecy/3days3nights.html

I was quite blown away recently to hear Hal Lindsey state on his national radio program that he has come to believe that the scriptures show a Wednesday crucifixion. Perhaps you ought to examine the evidence and decide for yourself; be like the Bereans who were complimented in scriptures for examining the teaching of Paul in light of the scriptures to see if it was so. There is clear, concrete evidence in the scriptures for a Wednesday crucifixion; you be the judge.


One of the most common questions asked by new Christians is, “How could Jesus have been in the heart of the earth for three days and three nights if He died on a Friday afternoon and rose before sunrise on a Sunday?” Most Christians duck the question, since at most they can only come up with one day and two nights (Friday nighttime, Saturday daytime, and Saturday nighttime in our measure of days). If they add in the Friday daytime they get two periods of daytime, even though Jesus would have died in the late afternoon on a Friday. This late afternoon death is consistent with the Passover lamb being killed between the two evenings of Jewish teaching. The lamb was killed between 3 and 6 PM on the afternoon of the 14th of Abib/Nisan and prepared, because the 15th was the first day of the Feast of Unleavened Bread, which was an annual Sabbath observance (the first and last days of Unleavened Bread were annual Sabbaths in addition to the normal weekly Sabbaths). This search of the scriptures is important, not because it affects salvation, but because it answers the questions posed on whether Jesus kept His Word, and whether the Bible is true in this matter. A legitimate concern and question for all Christians!!

“On the fourteenth day of the first month–between the two evenings (at twilight)–is the Passover to Yahweh (YHVH). And on the fifteenth day of this month is the Feast of Unleavened Bread to Yahweh (YHVH); seven days you shall eat unleavened bread. On the first day you shall have a holy convocation; you shall not do any laborious work. But for seven days you shall present an offering by fire to Yahweh (YHVH). On the seventh day is a holy convocation; you shall not do any laborious work.” Leviticus 23:5-8

The above text confirms that the first and last days of the Feast of Unleavened Bread are annual Sabbaths, to be observed as a day of rest in addition to the weekly Sabbaths. These days would occur on the 15th and 21st of Abib/Nisan. The Passover meal was an important religious observance in which to remember that the blood of the lamb on the doorposts of their houses kept them alive when the angel of death passed by, and that God had delivered them from slavery in Egypt. The Passover is a perpetual observance to celebrate pasing from death to life. These ancient events foretold the blood of Jesus being spilled for our sins, and our passage from death to eternal life, by the everlasting covenant of the blood of Jesus. They also foretold that Jesus would die as the national Passover Lamb, exactly on the 14th of Abib/Nisan and that the day following was an annual Sabbath.

What follows is a close examination of the biblical record, in which Jesus was killed on the 14th of Nisan in the afternoon, and the next day was the annual Sabbath, the first day of the Feast of Unleavened Bread. We shall also see from the biblical record that this annual Sabbath did not fall on the weekly Sabbath, in the year that Jesus died.

Then some of the scribes and Pharisees answered Him, saying, “Teacher, we want to see a sign from You.” But He answered and said to them, “An evil and adulterous generation craves for a sign; yet no sign shall be given to it but the sign of Jonah the prophet. For just as Jonah was three days and three nights in the belly of the fish; so shall the Son of Man be three days and three nights in the heart of the earth.” Matthew 12:38-40

But later on two came forward, and said, “This one (man) stated, I am able to destroy the temple of God and rebuild it in three days.” Matthew 26:60-61

Now on the next day, which is the one after the day of preparation (after the eve of the Sabbath), the Chief Priests and the Pharisees gathered together with Pilate. And they said to him, “Sir, we recall that the deceiver said when he was still alive, ‘After three days I will arise.’ Therefore, command to guard the tomb until the third day, lest his disciples should come and steal Him away in the night and say to the people that he has risen from the grave, and the last deception be worse than the first.” Pilate said to them, “You have guards; go guard it just as you know how.” Then they went to guard the tomb; and together with the guards, they sealed that stone.” Matthew 27:62-66

The above verses show that Jesus had openly taught that the major sign that He was the Messiah was that He would die and three days later rise again. Even more clearly, He said that He would be three days and three nights in the heart of the earth. This promise meant that 72 hours would pass from His death to His resurrection and that this would be the sign for the Jews that He was who He said He was (the Messiah). The Friday crucifixion with a resurrection before sunrise on Sunday morning totals approximately 36 hours. If we understood Jesus to mean thatwithin three days and three nights He would rise again, then any period short of that would suffice. But He taught thatafter three days and three nights in the heart of the earth, then He would rise again. This logically would necessitate the crucifixion on a Wednesday, then the daylight and nighttime periods of Thursday, Friday, and Saturday would be three days and three nights. We count from either His actual death shortly after 3 PM or from the time His body was laid in the tomb, shortly before the annual Sabbath began, although I believe we should count the 72 hours from the time the body was laid in the tomb.

You’ll notice that the above text from Matthew 27 recorded that the chief priests met with Pilate the next morning after the crucifixion to get permission to post a guard and seal the tomb. The Bible records that this was the day after the day of preparation. This day of preparation is the 14th of Abib/Nisan, when the homes were scoured for any leavened bread within the house and a preparation of food was readied for the Passover meal, and the Feast of Unleavened Bread [Mark 15:42, Luke 23:54, John 19:14, 31, 42]. Therefore, the grave of Jesus was not sealed until the morning of the 15th of Abib/Nisan, on the annual Sabbath. In the text from John 19:31, we learn that the body of Jesus needed to be removed from the cross because the Sabbath was about to begin and that Sabbath was a high day or annual Sabbath. This is consistent with the other verses which teach that the day of preparation was the day that Jesus died. Now we only need to determine whether the annual Sabbath and weekly Sabbath fell on the same day, which would lead us to the conclusion that Jesus died on a Friday afternoon, shortly after 3 PM as commonly taught. If not, then He died on another day of the week.

But the Jews (Judeans), because it was the day of preparation (evening of the Sabbath), they were saying, “These bodies should not pass the night on their crosses, because the Sabbath say is approaching, for that Sabbath was a high day (an annual Sabbath).” And they asked Pilate to break the legs of those who had been crucified, and they would be taken away (die quickly). John 19:31

And Nicodemus came also, who had come before to Yeshua (Jesus) by night; and he brought with him spices of myrrh and aloes for Yeshua (Jesus), about a hundred pounds. And they took away the body of Yeshua (Jesus) and wrapped it with linen and with spices, just as is the burial custom of the Jews (Judeans). John 19:39-40

And Joseph (Yosef) took the body and wrapped it in a sheet of pure linen; and he placed it in his own new tomb, which was cut in stone. Then they rolled a large stone against the entrance of the tomb; and they departed. And Miryam Magdalitha (Mary Magdalene) and the other Miryam (Mary) were there, sitting opposite the tomb (grave). Matthew 27:59-61

And Joseph (Yosef) bought linen, took Him down (from the cross), wrapped Him, and placed Him in a tomb that was hewn out in rock. Then he rolled a stone against the entrance of the tomb. AndMiryam Magdalitha (Mary Magdalene) and Miryam (Mary) the mother of Joses saw where He had been laid. Mark 15:46-47

And it was the Preparation Day (the eve of the High Sabbath), and the Sabbath was about to begin. Now these women who had come with Him out of Galilee were approaching; and they saw the tomb and how His body had been laid. And they returned and prepared sweet spices and ointments. Then on the Sabbath they rested according to the commandment. Luke 23:54-56

In totality, the above verses together give us the complete picture of what happened after Jesus’ death, how His body was prepared for burial, and who observed this process. It is extremely important to notice that none of the above texts alone gives the complete story, and that you have to read all together to get the whole story. Joseph took Jesus’ body after receiving permission from Pilate, bought a linen sheet, and bound the body with Nicodemus’ assistance. Nicodemus had brought a hundred pounds of myrrh and aloes, which they bound with the body. The tomb was near where Jesus was crucified, and belonged to Joseph who had carved this tomb out of rock. It was a new tomb that had never before been used. Also, Mary Magdalene and Mary the mother of Joses accompanied the body from the cross and watched the entire process of burial. When Jesus’ body was laid in the tomb, then Joseph, assisted by Nicodemus, rolled a large stone in front of the tomb opening and left. Finally, the two Mary’s left and prepared spices and perfumes, before resting on the Sabbath. Up to this point, we have no evidence that the annual Sabbath and weekly Sabbath did not fall on the same day as traditionally taught.

The next collection of verses will explore the role of the women in preparing spices and perfumes with which they intended to anoint the body of Jesus.

And they returned and prepared sweet spices and ointments. And on the Sabbath they restedaccording to the commandment. But on the first day of the week at early dawn while it was dark they came to the tomb; they brought the sweet spices, these they had prepared. And there were with them other women. And they found that the stone was rolled away from the tomb. Luke 23:56, 24:1-2

But at evening in the Sabbath that was beginning the first day in the week, Miryam Magdalitha (Mary Magdalene) and the other Miryam (Mary) came that they might see the tomb. And behold there was a great earthquake; for the angel of MarYah (YHVH=Yahweh) descended from heaven and he came and rolled away the stone from the entrance; and he sat upon it. But his appearance was like lightning; and his clothing was white as snow. And from the dread of him, those who were keeping watch were shaken and they became like dead men. Matthew 28:1-4

And when the Sabbath was over, Miryam Magdalitha (Mary Magdalene) and Miryam (Mary)mother of Yaqov (James) and Salom (Salome) bought sweet spices that they might come and anoint Him. But in the morning on the first day of the week they came to the tomb when the sun arose. And they were saying among themselves, “But who will roll away the stone for us from the tomb?” And looking up, they saw that the stone had been rolled away, for it was very large. Mark 16:1-4

Now in the first of the week, Miryam Magdalitha (Mary Magdalene) came to the tomb in the very early morning while it was still dark. And she saw that the stone had been removed from the tomb. And she ran and she came to Shimon Kaypha (Simon Peter) and to that other disciple whom Yeshua (Jesus) had loved, and she said to them, “They have taken away our Lord from the tomb, and I don’t know where they have laid Him.” John 20:1-2

You may have to reread the above verses to notice that the women who had watched Jesus’ body being laid in the tomb, prepared perfumes/ointments and spices. The Mark 16 text says that Mary Magdalene and the other Marybought spices AFTER the Sabbath and prepared them. While the Luke 23 text states that the women prepared spices and then rested on the Sabbath. This is consistent with an annual Sabbath on Thursday, the first day of the Feast of Unleavened Bread, and the weekly Sabbath on Saturday. We know that these are the same women because the Bible verses all relate that Mary Magdalene was involved in all these events. However, two other Mary’s are mentioned, one the mother of James and Salome, and the other the mother of Joses. In all cases, Mary Magdalene was involved. Therefore, the women saw Jesus’ body being laid in the tomb on a Wednesday afternoon, they rested on the annual Sabbath on Thursday, and bought spices on Friday. They prepared the spices on Friday and then rested according to the commandment on the weekly Sabbath on Saturday. After the weekly Sabbath, they intended to anoint Jesus’ body with the perfumes and spices. Therefore both intuitively and by evidence, we have proven that Passover was on a Wednesday, and that Jesus did as He had said, which was to rise again after three days and three nights. What remains to determine, is whether Jesus rose as the weekly Sabbath was ending or at sunrise on Sunday?

You’ll notice through a comparison of the four gospels that Mary Magdalene and the disciples went to the tomb a number of times. In some it was still dark, and in some it was already light. It wasn’t until it was light on Sunday that they actually discovered that He had risen, in the first visits the tomb was empty. The above text in John 20, tells us of the first visit by Mary Magdalene when it was dark, the tomb was empty, and she had not been told that Jesus was risen, and only saw the stone rolled away. I will leave it to the reader to compare the applicable verses in the four gospels to reconstruct the various visits to the tomb. However, there is one verse which seems to tell us that Jesus rose on the first day of the week.

Now after He had risen early on the first day of the week, He first appeared to Mary Magdalene, from whom He had cast out seven demons. Mark 16:9

(Peshitta Aramaic NT) But at the beginning/dawning of the first of the week, He had risen and appeared first to Miryam Magdalitha (Mary Magdalene) from whom He had cast out seven demons. Mark 16:9

The above text would seem to conclusively prove that Jesus rose early in the evening on the first day of the week, what we would call Saturday night. Some commentators have speculated that verses 9-20 of this chapter were later added since they weren’t in any of the early manuscripts. Whether or not that is true, the reader ought to know that the meaning of a verse may be altered by the addition of a comma or a deletion. The original text did not have these punctuation marks in the Greek text, so they were added later. If a comma is added after risen, the verse takes on an entirely different meaning. Now after He had risen, early on the first day of the week He first appeared to Mary Magdalene, from whom He had cast out seven demons. This change is not altering scripture since it was not written with punctuation marks. This makes the verse consistent with all the four gospels, where Mary Magdalene visited the grave, shortly after the Sabbath ended, and saw the empty grave with the stone rolled away, but did not see an angel or see Jesus. It was later, when the sun had risen on Sunday morning that she came with Mary the mother of James and Salome back to the tomb, saw an angel who told her that he had risen, and then saw Jesus. One can imagine that Mary asked Mary Magdalene, “Who would roll away the stone?” as they approached the tomb, since Mary Magdalene had not mentioned that she had been there earlier and saw the empty grave. Then she went and told the disciples that she saw the angel and saw Jesus. What any reader should realize is that the Holy Spirit gave us the four gospels with fragments of the story in each, and it takes a study of all together, to arrive at the complete picture. The following verse clearly shows us that Mary Magdalene came to the grave as the weekly Sabbath was ending.

Now late on the Sabbath, as it began to dawn toward the first day of the week, Mary Magdalene and the other Mary came to look at the grave. Matthew 28:1 (NASB)

Bishop Papias was an early church bishop in Syria and he wrote that the book of Matthew was originally written in Aramaic, and then translated into Greek by the apostles. Irenaeus and Clement also mentioned seeing the original Aramaic of the book of Matthew. We have some precedence and evidence that at least some of the new testament books were first written in Aramaic, and translated by the apostles into Greek, and Matthew is one of them. I say all of this because the Peshitta Aramaic of Matthew 28:1 in Aramaic is much clearer than the Greek.

(smoother English from the Peshitta Aramaic NT) But in the evening, in the Sabbath, when the first of the week was beginning/dawning, Miryam Magdalitha (Mary Magdalene) and the other Miryam (Mary) came to see the tomb.

It is obvious that “at/in the Sabbath” where the beginning of the first of the week was near, that it is making the point that it was at twilight that Mary Magdalene and the other Mary came to the tomb. The twilight period belongs half to the day ending and half to the next day beginning. The verse drives home the point that this was Saturday evening, but that the twilight period still belonged to the Sabbath (i.e. within 1/2 hour after sundown). There were no streetlights then, and no flashlights, so if the full moon had not yet risen, then when it got dark, it got really dark, really fast. The 2 Mary’s had just enough time to look around and leave. No one can read the Peshitta Aramaic of Matthew 28:1 and mistake it for any other understanding than that the Mary’s arrived at the tomb at twilight on Saturday evening and the stone had already been rolled away.

Note: some people try and make a trivial argument that the word “nagah” literally means beginning of daylight and cannot mean metaphorically the twilight. They are mistaken. Why? because Matthew 28:1 says it was still in the Sabbath and the Sabbath ended 1/2 hour after sundown. The context is clear that “nagah” is being used metaphorically for the beginning of the first day of the week.

Why didn’t the 2 Mary’s try to anoint the body of Jesus on Friday, since they had prepared the spices and perfumes on Friday before the weekly Sabbath began? It is because in Matthew 27:62-66, Pilate had given the Roman order to have the grave sealed on Thursday morning, and they had put the Roman seal on it and posted guards until the 3 days were complete. Therefore, if the 2 Marys had tried to annoint the body on Friday, they would have broken the law and been arrested. They waited until after the 3 days, so as to avoid arrest. The apostles were all in hiding at the time, fearing possibly their own arrest, so it fell to the 2 Mary’s to annoint the body.

The fact is that the Last Supper celebrated with the bread and wine by Jesus and the disciples took place on the evening of the fourth day of the week (we would say Tuesday evening) and was not the Passover seder meal. Jesus was crucified on a Wednesday and was in the grave 3 days and 3 nights. He rose from the dead late on the Sabbath. Finally, He revealed Himself to Mary Magdalene and the disciples on the first day of the week, shortly after sunrise. Of course this means that we have a Palm Saturday and not a Palm Sunday. It also means that Jesus performed the sign He said He would, and that Sunday being the Lord’s day is a fabrication of the bishop of Rome. Bishop Sixtus instituted this teaching at Rome shortly after the death of the Apostle John, and later Bishops of Rome perpetuated the error he brought into the church. In due time, even the keeping of the Passover remembrance on the evening 24hours after the Last Supper was outlawed with excommunication.

Wednesday Crucifixion graphic #1 by Michael J. Harris

One will also note that the lamb for Passover was selected on the 10th of Abib/Nisan, and this did not occur as traditionally taught, but on the weekly Sabbath prior to the Passover. As the Lamb of God, Jesus was selected as the acceptable lamb for slaughter following the triumphal entry, when the chief priests met to determine His death on the Sabbath. He was laid in the tomb as the annual Sabbath was beginning, when the Passover seder meal was eaten. On the following weekly Sabbath, as it was ending, Jesus rose from the dead. This is consistent with His teaching where He said He was Lord of the Sabbath.

There have been many noted believers in a Wednesday crucifixion, from the time of the early church until now. These include Epiphanus, Victorinus of Petau in 307 AD, Lactantius, Wescott, Cassiodorus, and Gregory of Tours. Later, Finis Dake and R.A. Torrey also believed in a Wednesday crucifixion. We now know that the Bible teaches a Wednesday crucifixion, so the reader now must face the facts of the Bible as compared to the traditions of men. At the same time, I say that this does not determine salvation, for I know that there will be millions who have believed the Friday crucifixion hoax and I will see them in heaven one day. Also, a superficial reading of the gospels does tend to lead one to the conclusion of a Friday crucifixion, when read separately, so one cannot blame the majority of believers for this false belief.

The learned reader might say that the Passover as kept today cannot fall on a Wednesday, in the Jewish calendar. That is the case today, but then neither does Firstfruits (wave offering) or the Feast of Weeks (Pentecost) occur on the first day of the week in the Jewish calendar. The reason is a matter of history. There was a controversy between the Phariseean and Sadduceean way of keeping these important feast days. At the time of Jesus, the Sadducees were the high priests and kept the days according to our present Christian understanding from the Torah. For example, the Sadducees believed that Firstfruits always fell on the first day of the week, which meant that Pentecost also fell on the first day of the week. While the Pharisees believed that Firstfruits fell on the 16th of Abib/Nisan, the day after the annual Sabbath, leading to Pentecost on various days of the week. At the time of Jesus, the Sadduceean keeping of the feasts was in effect, but after the dispersion, the more numerous and stricter Pharisees perpetuated their understanding of Judaism. They were the ancestors of modern day Orthodox Jews and are the keepers of the calendar today. Their rules have supplanted the days as kept in the time of Jesus, even though these are minor rule changes. Please feel free to comment on this article by e-mail.

Did The Law Of YHWH – The Torah Ended With Christ?


Did The Law Of YHWH – The Torah Ended With Christ?

Aim of this note is to find out on how valid Paul’s claim regarding the Torah ( Law ) being no longer applicable.

Paul a Self-Made Apostle and who never met Jesus preached that Jesus was the End Of The Law, and Abolished the Law of God?

Now, How true that Jesus  was the END OF THE LAW?

For Christ is the end of the law for righteousness to every one that believeth. [ Romans 10:4 KJV ]

And, How true that Jesus  ABOLISHED THE LAW?

by abolishing the law of commandments expressed in ordinances, that he might create in himself one new man in place of the two, so making peace, [Ephesians 2:15 ESV]

We too often hear from Paulinian Christians that salvation according to them is just simply  accept Jesus as your savior and have faith in Jesus and FORGET that STINKY, CURSED LAW of GOD!!! Sounds madness, insanity isn’t it?

Now where did these Paulinian Christians got this novel idea?

It was Paul who originally preached that obedience to Law Of God is no longer necessary. We read Paul saying;

But now we are delivered from the law, [Romans 7:6]

Knowing that a man is not justified by the works of the law, but by the faith of Jesus Christ, [ Gal 2:16]

For as many as are of the works of the law are under the curse [Gal 3:10]

In that he saith, A new covenant, he hath made the first old.Now that whichdecayeth and waxeth old is ready to vanish away.[Heb 8:13]

Blotting out the handwriting of ordinances that was against us, which was contrary to us,and took it out of the way, nailing it to his cross;[Colossians 2:14 KJV]

Surprisingly, What the Muslims use to prove that Law of Moses was still in effect and binding was also the very teaching used by Paulinian to assert that Law is no longer binding.

Lets quote the very verses in question:

For verily I say unto you, Till heaven and earth pass, one jot or one title shall in no wise pass from the law, till all be “fulfilled.“[Matthew 5:18 KJV]

Christians argued that since the law according to them was already“fulfilled” oraccomplished thus in effects its no longer enforceable and binding! How tenacious and credible is Paulinian interpretation?
There 3 ways actually to debunk this unfounded claims by the Christians;

 FIRST : Show lexically that”fulfilled” is not the appropriate word used when rendering the passage

SECOND : Show contextually that the intended meaning of the passage was to KEEP the Law Of Moses !

THIRD : Show some verses which correlate with what Jesus said.

Moving on…. Let us start with the

FIRST : Show lexically that“fulfilled” is not the appropriate word used when rendering the passage

The Greek word translated as “fulfilled” in  Matt 5:17 was  #4137 πληρόω “pleroo” {play-ro’-o}}
Looking at the lexicons, Greek “pleroo” has also a lot of possible meaning. Among those acceptable meaning are

“to perform”, “execute”, and “to fully preach”

Online source :  http://lexiconcordance.com/greek/4137.html

Here is the verse in question : Matthew 5:17

Online source : http://www.blueletterbible.org/Bible.cfm?b=Mat&c=5&t=KJV#s=t_conc_934017

Now here and observed carefully The Old tricks they used – the usual dishonest translation :

Amazingly , The same Greek word“pleero”  was also used in  Romans 15:19… but this time it was correctly translated as “preached”!!!!

Through mighty signs and wonders, by the power of the Spirit of God; so that from Jerusalem, and round about unto Illyricum, I have fully preached {pleroo} the gospel of Christ. [Romans 15:19 KJV]

Online source  : http://www.blueletterbible.org/Bible.cfm?b=Rom&c=15&t=KJV#s=t_conc_1061019

The context of the preceding verses( v12-v16) dictates that the disciples who were also deemed as “light” or guide  are duty bound to guide the mankind by following a certain set of rules or code ofethics and morality. This is the same true with what is intended meaning of  “pleero” in Romans 15:19. Guiding, instructing, and exemplifying the moral code, theological guidance that they carry.
However, inspite of same intended purpose, Paulinian Christians in order to uphold Paul’s doctrine, did not  use the accurate rendering of Greek “pleero” in Matthew 5:17. They dishonestly translated the Greek “pleero” as fulfilled.  But, in Romans 15:19 they accurately rendered it as “preached”.!!!!

Therefore, keeping in mind of the lexicons and the manner it was used in Romans 15:19,
Matthew 5:17-19 can also be therefore read as

Think not that I am come to destroy the law, or the prophets: I am not come to destroy, but to”pleero” {fully preached, perform, or execute }


Moving on to the SECOND : Show contextually that the intended meaning of the passage was to KEEP the Law Of Moses !

Lets us cite the whole context to understand  what “pleero” in Mat 5:17 actually meant.

Matthew 5:12-21 KJV
12  Rejoice, and be exceeding glad: for great is your reward in heaven: for so persecuted they the prophets which were before you.


{  Jesus been encouraging here his  little flocks that Men of God, The Prophets and their successors in the past  were always  been persecuted for delivering the message of God to humanity. Thus to be persecuted and to suffer – a thing not to be mourned over, but as among the chief blessings of life. That is, the reward will be great in the future world.To those who suffer most, God imparts the highest rewards. Hence, the crown of martyrdom has been thought to be the brightest that any of the redeemed shall wear; and hence many of the early Muslims sought to become martyrs, and threw themselves in the way of their persecutors, that they might be put to death.  I am just wondring how this”rejoicing” can come along with “Jesus” seems reluctant to die on his prayer on garden of Gethsemane, and his last cry “My God My God why have you forsaken me?  }
13  Ye are the salt of the earth: but if the salt have lost his savour, wherewith shall it be salted? it is thenceforth good for nothing, but to be cast out, and to be trodden under foot of men.
{ Salt renders food pleasant and palatable, and preserves from putrefaction. So Muslims, by their lives and instructions, are to keep the world from entire moral corruption. By bringing down the blessing of God in answer to their prayers, and by their influence and example, they save the world from universal vice and crime}

14  Ye are the light of the world. A city that is set on an hill cannot be hid.

{ The light of the world often denotes the sun, Joh_11:9. The sun renders objects visible, shows their form, their nature, their beauties, their deformities. The term light is often applied to religious teachers. See Mat_4:16; Luk_2:32; Joh_1:4; Joh_8:12;Isa_49:6. It is pre-eminently applied to Jesus in these places, because he is,in the moral world, what the sun is in the natural world. The Prophets and their successors, disciples, are lights of the world, because they, by their instructions and example, show what God requires, what is the condition of man,what is the way of duty, peace, and happiness the way that leads to heaven.}
15  Neither do men light a candle, and put it under a bushel, but on a candlestick; and it giveth light unto all that are in the house.
{  Neither do men light a candle … -The word rendered “candle” means any portable light, as a lamp, candle,lantern. Compare Mar_4:21; Luk_8:16; Luk_12:35. Jesus proceeded here to show them that the very reason why they were enlightened/guided was that others might also see the light, and be benefited by it. When people light a candle,they do not conceal the light, but place it where it may be of use. So it is with religion. It is given that we may benefit others. It is not to be concealed, but suffered to show itself, and to shed light on a surrounding wicked world. }
16  Let your light so shine before men,that they may see your good works, and glorify your Father which is in heaven.

{ Let your light so shine … – Let your holy life, your pure conversation, and your faithful instructions, be everywhere seen and known. Always, in all societies, in all business, at home and abroad, in prosperity and adversity, let it be seen that you are real Servant Of God. ..That they may see your good works – The proper motive to influence us is not simply that we may be seen (compare Mat_6:1), but it should be that our One and Only Lord may be glorified.}

Can there be anything more clearer than that? It is so clear v12-v16 Jesus was exhorting them of their obligations, responsibilities in the matter of guiding humanity through proper conduct and right wisdom. Now here we comes for the  MISUNDERSTOOD verse :::
17  Think not that I am come to destroy the law, or the prophets: I am not come to destroy, but to fulfil / preach.

{  I guessed by now you  already have the idea of what Jesus had in mind when he said… “THINK NOT that I CAME TO DESTROY!!{Destroy what?}  THE LAW!  Now why would Jesus exhorted his disciples in v12-16 to be a light as a guide for the humanity if these disciple will not live with in a defined moral code, moral laws, ethics which is prescribed by God if it will end or fulfilled as what the Paulinian alleged? What standards or prescribed ways of living if we don’t have such a standards/Laws that would guide us in all our endeavors? Wouldn’t it become chaotic? That everyone will do whatever he please because there is no Law regulating his conducts? Certainly it would be. God can not allow us to live without a Laws prescribed by Him. Therefore, it is not logical that Jesus who knows his Father’s Will advocated that the Law ended or fulfilled by him! Matthew 5:17 therefore should have been correctly read as THINK NOT that I COME TO DESTROY/ABOLISHED the Law, BUT to FULLY PREACH and EXECUTE it { pleero }!!
18  For verily I say unto you, Till heaven and earth pass, one jot or one tittle shall in no wise pass from the law, till all be fulfilled.

{ When will the heaven pass? The expression “Till heaven and earth pass” simply meansFOREVER!!  Jesus never put an “end” nor destroy The Law. }
19  Whosoever therefore shall break one of these least commandments, and shall teach men so, he shall be called the least in the kingdom of heaven: but whosoever shall do and teach them, the same shall be called great in the kingdom of heaven.
{ Why would Jesus warns “Whosoever therefore shall break one of these” if after all these Laws will be sooner to be ended by him??? The warning will make sense only if  the Laws will be continuously binding!}

20  For I say unto you, That except your righteousness shall exceed the righteousness of the scribes and Pharisees, ye shall in no case enter into the kingdom of heaven.

{  Why would Jesus criticized the man-made oral traditions of the Pharisees if the Law of Moses too will be made into nothing because he will put an end to it? It makes no sense of course unless The Law of Moses is still binding }
21  Ye have heard that it was said by them of old time, Thou shalt not kill; and whosoever shall kill shall be in danger of the judgment:

{ Why would Jesus mentioned here the Law of Moses if it be will ended as what the Christians alleged? It makes no sense unless of course if it will be still binding }

Finally, the sermon of Jesus in this chapter culminated in :

48 :Be ye therefore perfect, even as your Father which is in heaven is perfect.

{ God is perfect!Our final goal is to be with Him who is Perfect and Holy!  Jesus is telling that it is ONLY through following the Law of God which led us into perfection!!!  Please compare this withPeople who reject Law Of Moses on Matthew 7:23 and 1 Cor 9:21  }
Moving on to the THIRD :  Show some verses which correlate with what Jesus said.

Except for Paul who considered The Law Of God as a CURSE,  Genuine Prophets and their Apostles unconditionally LOVE the Laws of God!!!

TORAH The Word Of God is Eternal

Psalm119:160 New International Version   http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Psalms+119%3A160&version=NIV

” All your words are true; all your righteous laws are eternal..”

Psalm 19:7
The law of the LORD is perfect, refreshing the soul. The statutes of the LORD are trustworthy, making wise the simple.

Psalm 111:8
They are established for ever and ever, enacted in faithfulness and uprightness.

Psalm 119:89
Your word, LORD, is eternal; it stands firm in the heavens.

Psalm 119:142
Your righteousness is everlasting and your law is true.

Psalm 119:152
Long ago I learned from your statutes that you established them to last forever.

Psalm 119:164
Seven times a day I praise you for your righteous laws.

Psalm 139:17
How precious to me are your thoughts, God! How vast is the sum of them!

Online Source : http://biblehub.com/psalms/119-160.htm

The BIG Questions that every Paulinian should answer is : Who are they TO ABOLISHEDthe Law when God clearly stated that The Law – The Torah is ETERNAL?

ABRAHAM Loves the Laws of God

Genesis 26:5 KJV

Because that Abraham obeyed my voice, and kept my charge, my commandments, my statutes, and my laws.

MOSES Loves the Laws of God


It is the LORD your God you must follow, and him you must revere. Keep his commands and obey him; serve him and hold fast to him.


However, if you do not obey the LORD your God and do not carefully follow all his commands and decrees I am giving you today, all these curses will come on you and overtake you:


The secret things belong to the LORD our God, but the things revealed belong to us and to our children forever, that we may follow all the words of this law.


if you obey the LORD your God and keep his commands and decrees that are written in this Book of the Law and turn to the LORD your God with all your heart and with all your soul.

David  Loves The Law of God

Psalms 19:7-11 KJV

7  The law of the LORD is perfect, converting the soul: the testimony of the LORD is sure, making wise the simple.

8  The statutes of the LORD are right, rejoicing the heart: the commandment of the LORD is pure, enlightening the eyes.

9  The fear of the LORD is clean, enduring forever: the judgments of the LORD are true and righteous altogether.

10  More to be desired are they than gold, yea,than much fine gold: sweeter also than honey and the honeycomb.

11  Moreover by them is thy servant warned: and in keeping of them there is great reward.

St John – One of The Genuine Disciples of Jesus : Loves The Law Of God
1 John 5:2-3 KJV

2  By this we know that we love the children of God, when we love God, and keep his commandments.

3  For this is the love of God, that we keep his commandments: and his commandments are not grievous.

St James – The Just, One of the genuine  Apostles of Jesus : Loves The Law Of God

But whoso looketh into the “PERFECT LAW” of LIBERTY and “CONTINUETH” therein, he being not a forgetful hearer, but a doer of the “WORK,” this man shall be blessed in his “DEED.” JAMES 1:25

I think this will SUFFICE to demonstrate my point that … Loving God is only through KEEPING his COMMANDMENTS and applying the Eternal Laws throughout his lives!

Conclusion : Only Satan HATES the Law of God !

Can you people believe on what you have read? Yes! This Insane Pharisees – Saul/Paul of Tarsus deemed the Eternal Law of God as a CURSED!!!! Now who hate most and love to violate the Laws of God? Satan of Course! But Paul of Tarsus is more evil, treacherous than Satan, Paul even ABOLISHED the Whole Law Of God and proclaim himself ABOVE the Law of God!!!

Paul does what he wants when he wants to do it. God’s wrath doesn’t matter to him because he is ABOVE THE LAW! Consider these verses of Paul:


All things are lawful unto me … all things are lawful for me but I will not be brought under the power of “ANY!” 1ST CORINTHIANS 6:12

Let every man be fully persuaded in his own mind. ROMANS 14: 5

Paul twists the truth and says:

“If you think it is sin then it is sin, but if you think it is good then, “IT IS GOOD!”As long as you believe a thing to be truth, it is truth! So says Paul.

Paul then says:

  • For whether we “LIVE” we live unto the Lord; and whether we “DIE,” we die unto the Lord: whether we “LIVE” therefore, or “DIE,” we are the Lord’s. ROMANS 14: 8

Paul / Satan says:

Forget about the Law because it doesn’t matter what you do! You are going to Heaven whether you follow Him or not because God loves you too much to kill you right?”

Lastly Paul finishes his lies with a ridiculous statement:

  • Happy is he that condemns not himself in that thing which he allows. ROMANS 14: 22

If you don’t think about your sins then you won’t feel bad about them. Again this man’s thinking is warped. Neither he nor anyone that follows his new philosophy can do any wrong!

“Hurry, Hurry folks! Step right up and get your “Get out of Hell free” gospel that allows you to sin and still go to Heaven all expenses paid!”


EARTH IS FLAT – Evidence From The BIBLE

The Bible’s flat earth/solid sky dome universe

This was how the universe appeared to the ancient Israelites who authored the Bible and to most everyone else in ancient times. The earth appeared to be flat and circular sitting on pillars with a rotating solid sky dome overhead which carried the Sun, the Moon, and the Stars and allowed water to leak through”windows of heaven” or sluice gates to form clouds and rain. God was imagined to live on top of the dome and walk on it.

The Hebrew word “shamayim” is translated as both sky and heaven. To the ancient Hebrews they meant exactly the same thing. God lived in and on the sky dome with the Sun, the Moon, and the rest of the “host of heaven”(the stars).

The Bible’s flat earth

In the Bible the earth is a round flat object with ends and which is immovable and set on pillars.

Here God is imagined to draw a circle on the face of the waters to make the earth.

(Prov 8:26-27 NRSV) when he had not yet made earth and fields,or the world’s first bits of soil. When he established the heavens, I was there, when he drew a circle on the face of the deep,

A circle is of course a flat round object. Some would say that the ancient Hebrews had no word for sphere so they used circle, but that is not true. There is a Hebrew word for ball used in the bible. A flat round earth was intuitive to these primitive people. Let me show you where the word ball or sphere is used in the Bible;

Hebrew word for the circle is “khoog”. H2329

 Isaiah 22:18 KJV  He will surely violently turn and toss thee like a ball ( Hebrew – dure – H17540)   into a large country: there  shalt thou die, and there the chariots of thy glory shall be the shame of thy lord’s house.

If you picture yourself in their place, it would not be too hard to imagine the earth as being round and flat as you turn around to trace the outline of the horizon where the sky seems to meet the earth.

Here God is imagined to sit above the circle of the earth looking down on it’s inhabitants who are small like grasshoppers.

(Isa 40:22 NRSV) It is he who sits above the circle of the earth, and its inhabitants are like grasshoppers; who stretches out the heavens like a curtain, and spreads them like a tent to live in;

Again a circle is a flat two dimensional object and there was a Hebrew word for ball which would have been more appropriate if the author would have been aware of the earth’s spherical nature.

Hebrew word for the circle is “khoog”. H2329

Here the author of Daniel writes of a dream of Nebuchadnezzar where a tree grows at the “center” of the earth. Assuming that the tree grew on the surface, this is most certainly the center of a flat earth as a spherical earth would have no center on it’s surface. Also notice that the tree grew so tall it’s top reached heaven and was visible to the “ends of the earth”.So these verses indicate that Nebuchadnezzar and the author of Daniel pictured a flat earth as everyone else did in their time.

(Dan 4:10-11 NRSV) Upon my bed this is what I saw; there was a tree at the center of the earth, and its height was great. The tree grew great  and strong, its top reached to heaven, and it was visible to the ends of the whole earth.

Here it is possible that this gospel author still imagined a flat earth as Jesus is able to see all the kingdoms of the world from a high mountain. This would not be possible on a spherical earth.

(Mat 4:8 NRSV) Again, the devil took him to a very high mountain and showed him all the kingdoms of the world and their splendor;

Here the author of Job imagines that God could take the edges of the earth and shake the wicked out of it.

(Job 38:13 NIV) that it might take the earth by the edges and shake the wicked out of it?

Here the author of Job is saying something is longer than the earth. A flat earth with ends could be compared for length, but longer has no meaning for a spherical earth.

(Job 11:9 NRSV) Its measure is longer than the earth, and broader than the sea.

One end of a flat earth to the other end of a flat earth is mentioned here (a spherical earth had no ends).

(Deu 13:7 NRSV) any of the gods of the peoples that are around you, whether near you or far away from you, from one end of the earth to the other,

Again,some would say that the ends of the earth is not be taken literally and that would be true today, but the phrase is left over from when people used to really believe the earth had ends, which was the case for the ancient Hebrews and most everyone else at that time.

Hereis a few more verses that mention the ends of the earth

Deu 28:49, Deu 28:64, Deu 33:17, 1 Sam 2:10, Job 1:7, Job 28:24,Job 37:3, Psa 2:8, Psa 19:4, Psa 22:27, Psa 33:13, Psa 33:14, Psa 48:10, Psa59:13, Psa 61:2, Psa 65:5, Psa 72:8

The Bible’s immovable earth set on pillars

Here the earth is imagined to be set on pillars and immovable.

(Psa 93:1 NRSV) … He has established the world; it shall neverbe moved;

(1 Sam 2:8 NRSV) For the pillars of the earth are the Lord’s,and on them he has set the world.

(Isa 24:18 NRSV) or the windows of heaven are opened, and thefoundations of the earth tremble.

The Bible’s solid sky dome

Here God is imagined to create a solid sky dome that separates the waters into two parts.

One would become the oceans and the other would remain above the solid sky dome to provide an explanation of where water came from to cause clouds and rain in the absence of the knowledge of evaporation.

(Gen 1:6-7 NRSV) And God said, “Let there be a dome in the midst of the waters, and let it separate the waters from the waters.”

So God made the dome and separated the waters that were under the dome from the waters that were above the dome. And it was so.

Here is another verse which mentions the water above the sky dome.

(Psa 148:4 NRSV) Praise him, you highest heavens, and you waters above the heavens!

Here celestial bodies are attached to this sky dome.

(Gen 1:14-17 NRSV) And God said, “Let there be lights in the dome of the sky to separate the day from the night; and let them be for signs and for seasons and for days and years, and let them be lights in the dome of the sky to give light upon the earth.” And it was so. God made the two great lights–the greater light to rule the day and the lesser light to rule the night–and the stars.

God set them in the dome of the sky to give light upon theearth,

Notice that the lights, the Sun, the Moon, and the stars are set inside the sky dome.

Here it is mentioned that the sky dome is hard.

(Job 37:18 NRSV) Can you, like him, spread out the skies, hard as a molten mirror?

(Prov 8:28 NRSV) when he made firm the skies above, …

God is imagined to walk on top of the sky dome.

(Job 22:14 NRSV) Thick clouds enwrap him, so that he does not see, and he walks on the dome of heaven.’

The sky is imagined as something that has to open to let things pass through it

Here notice that heaven has to be “opened” for things to pass through,things in and above heaven to be seen, and for rain water to come through. One would think that would not be necessary unless the sky was imagined to be solid. Some would say that this was not be taken literally, but the sky was imagined to be solid in most cultures for over 1500 years after the last books of the bible were written.

(John 1:51 NRSV) And he said to him, “Very truly, I tell you, you will see heaven opened and the angels of God ascending and descending upon the Son of Man.”

(Acts 10:11 NRSV) He saw the heaven opened and something like a large sheet coming down, being lowered to the ground by its four corners.

(Acts 7:56 NRSV) “Look,” he said, “I see the heavens opened and the Son of Man standing at the right hand of God!”

(Mat 3:16-17 NRSV) And when Jesus had been baptized, just as he came up from the water, suddenly the heavens were opened to him and he saw the Spirit of God descending like a dove and alighting on him. And a voice from heaven said, “This is my Son, the Beloved, with whom I am well pleased.”

(2 Chr 6:26 NRSV) “When heaven (same Hebrew word as sky) is shut up and there is no rain because…

(Psa 78:23 NRSV) Yet he commanded the skies above, and opened the doors of heaven (same Hebrew word as sky);

(Mal 3:10 NRSV) Bring the full tithe into the storehouse, so that there may be food in my house, and thus put me to the test, says the LORD of hosts; see if I will not open the windows of heaven for you and pour down for you an overflowing blessing. (talking about rain for crops)

(Rev 11:6 NRSV) They have authority to shut the sky, so that norain may fall during the days of their prophesying,

(Gen 7:11-12 NRSV) In the six hundredth year of Noah’s life, in the second month, on the seventeenth day of the month, on that day all the fountains of the great deep burst forth, and the windows of the heavens were opened. The rain fell on the earth forty days and forty nights.

Joshua commands the Sun to stand still in the sky

Here Joshua was imagined to have commanded the Sun and the Moon to stand still overparticular geographic locations like a helicopter could be imagined to hover over a particular mountain or valley as if the Sun and the Moon were only a few miles high instead of 93 million (Sun) and 1/4 million (Moon) miles away. Tothe author the Sun and the Moon were attached to a rotating solid sky dome,just a few miles above his head.

(Josh 10:12-13 NRSV) On the day when the LORD gave the Amorites over to the Israelites, Joshua spoke to the LORD; and he said in the sight of Israel, “Sun, stand still at Gibeon, and Moon, in the valley of  Aijalon.”

And the sun stood still, and the moon stopped, until the nation took vengeance on their enemies. Is this not written in the Book of Jashar? The sun stopped in mid heaven, and did not hurry to set for about a whole day.

Jesus probably saw the universe the same way everyone else did in his day

Here it is indicated that Jesus himself pictured the stars as objects that could fall to the earth which would seem reasonable if he pictured the stars as little lights attached to a solid sky dome just a few miles up like everyone else in his day.

Instead,apparently unknown to Jesus, stars are objects typically millions of times larger than the earth and un imaginably distant.

(Mark 13:24-25 NRSV) “But in those days, after that suffering, the sun will be darkened, and the moon will not give its light, and the stars will be falling from heaven, and the powers in the heavens will be shaken.



More here : http://www.student.oulu.fi/~ktikkane/eU_LITT.html





We must now read for ourselves and find out who the child is in Isaiah Chapter 9. My Brothers and Sisters hopefully God will show you what He has revealed to me. This is an entirely different child altogether.

Isaiah prophesied about more than one child. We know now that the first child was a sign for King Ahaz from God that the nations of Samaria and Israel would not conquer the nation of Judah. Therefore when the child was born they would call the child Immanu-El as confirmation that God’s word was true and that He was with them/Judah in battle against their enemies.

Now this SECOND child in chapter 9 is a different child altogether. This prophecy announces the birth of a special King and military leader. Before we get to the birth of the child let me give you a brief overview so that you will understand why the prophecy was necessary. To do so we must go back a little to the conclusion of chapter 8.

In Chapter 8 verse 6, God tells Isaiah that the people of Jerusalem are planning to reject Him and instead think that they will be safe by asking King Rezin and King Pekah to join forces with them. For such disobedience God gives clear instruction of what the consequences will be.

The people still refuse and God strengthens the hands of the Assyrian armies to crush Judah and to take them into captivity. Wow!For their stupidity all of Israel is now starving, beaten severely,the children are burned, killed, tortured and so forth. The two nations that they put their faith in are destroyed as well because God chose Assyria to do his bidding. Assyria is sent by God to kill and torture all of Israel. Oh but wait! There is hope on the horizon! That new hope starts in the very first verse in Chapter 9.

  • NEVERTHELESS the dimness shall not be such as was in her vexation, when at the first he lightly afflicted the land of Zebulun and the land of Naphtali, and afterward did more grievously afflict her by the way of the sea, beyond Jordan, in Galilee of the nations. ISAIAH 9:1 KJV

Notice the key word for us in this verse is: Nevertheless. The understanding of this word is very crucial to God’s contextual point!

This word means: however, or “ON THE OTHER HAND.”

In Chapter 9 verses 1 through 8, after suffering such a shameful fate and God sends Isaiah to the captives for consolation. In the beginning of this chapter God says:

“ON THE OTHER HAND I will not punish you forever!”

God promises these Jews who walked in darkness that their suffering won’t last forever. Isaiah gives a new prophecy of redemption from Assyria. In verses 1 through 5, Isaiah cheerfully tells these Jews that they soon will see the power of the Lord breaking their chains and giving them their freedom!

They have repented and now a great light has come of them! God is sending their deliverer; a regular man who will be born in their midst. God is promising a “Messiah/King” to deliver them in the near future. God then promises that this King has just been born and will come through their very ranks. Now we can go on to read for understanding of the next verse:

  • “For unto us, a child is born, unto us a son is given; and the government shall be upon his shoulder, and his name shall be called Wonderful, Counselor, the Mighty God, The everlasting Father, The Prince of Peace.” Isaiah 9:6

Notice what Isaiah is saying here. After promising freedom Isaiah says:

“For unto us, a child is born, unto us a son is given.”

Now we can see that God is saying three distinct things in this verse two of them in the present tense and one in the future tense!

1.   A “CHILD/KING” has just BEEN born. (Present tense)

The child is coming from those who are in the captivity right now! Notice again that it says a child HAS been born to us. This is an event that has just occurred, not an event in the future. A future event would say A Child “will” be born to us or A Child “shall” be born to us.

This is not what the verse says. Since the birth happened in Isaiah’s lifetime it could not refer to Jesus, who was born many hundreds of years later.

2.   A “SON/MALE/KING” has just BEEN born. (Present tense)

For more clarity Isaiah repeats himself and lets the slave know that the prophetic child/king is alive now and this child/king will free them from Assyria.

3.     The Government SHALL BE on his shoulder. (FutureTense).

Isaiah continues and says that this very child is the “SON” or descendant of King David will have government ruler ship. In other words this child will be the new King of Judah at the proper time. Until that time they will have to endure punishment because of their sins.

Now the confusion arises in the next series of King James translations. Again think about the context below.


Now you might ask:

Can these titles be given to an ordinary man?

My answer is yes. Let me explain.

The simplest explanation here is you must remember soon this child will be the new King of the Jews. God is promising the Jews that their King will be the key figure who is in leadership when God brings the Jews out of the Assyrian captivity.

Isaiah tells the people to rejoice because their King/Messiah has already been born. Isaiah then tells the people about their rescuer. After this King is ordained by God to free the people, the Jews then will proclaim the king is a literal Messiah/Anointed/Christ that is sent from God. Isaiah then tells us the names the people in celebration will begin to call the person who finally rescues them.

  1. They will call this King “WONDERFUL” for bringing them out of bondage.
  2. They will call this King “COUNSELOR” because this man will sit on the throne of His father David and teach or council the people the Laws of YHWH given by Moses all the days of His rulership.
  3. They will call this King a “PEACEFUL” Ruler because he will execute justice for the poor, widows and the fatherless under His authority all throughout his reign.

He is called a Peaceful ruler not the Prince of Peace. That is stupid if you think of it. Why would Isaiah reduce a King’s title down to the title of a “PRINCE?” Would that make any sense to you?As you can see the non

Jewish translators are the ones who have this wrong.

Now someone will definitely ask the question:

“What about him being called

the Mighty God and Everlasting Father?”

That is a valid question because of the way the King James Bible writers have translated this verse as well. The answer to this question is: NO, the King is not going to be called the Mighty God or Everlasting Father at all.

So it has to be a prophecy about Jesus right? No it is not a prophecy about Jesus either. Remember in the New Testament Jesus was never called the Mighty God or the Everlasting Father either.

Jesus always gave praise to the Everlasting Father throughout the New Testament. Knowing that fact then everyone should conclude that this verse is not about Jesus either. The confusion started when the translators tried to break down the Hebrew phrase: Pele Joez -El Gibbor-Ed-Al- shalom. 

Isaiah never expected this great King or Jesus or anyone else to actually be known as YHWH the Eternal Father at all. I will prove this point with word for word scripture farther down in this chapter. Now even the Christian biased Strong’s Concordance points out something that is of great interest to the “Mighty God” theory proposed by the translators.

Strong’s Ref. # 410 Romanized ‘el, Pronounced: ale

Shortened from HSN0352strength; as adjective, mighty; especially the Almighty (but used also of any deity):

Now according to Strong’s, the KJV gives these meaning for the Hebrew word “’EL”:

KJV–God (god), X goodly,X great, idol, might (-y one), power, strong. Compare names in “-el.”

{{ Online Lexicons : http://lexiconcordance.com/hebrew/0410.html }}

Notice just how many different definitions there are for the phrase in verse 9:6. Now if I am purposely trying to influence the world and prove to everyone that Jesus is this person prophesied by Isaiah of course I am going to substitute a word that will further help substantiate my belief system.

As you can see if we were to use any of the other terms that naturally apply to the Hebrew word ‘EL then the pro-Christian theory loses all credibility.

So instead of this man being called the Mighty God, this man or King will be called by his followers merely as a strong or mighty one. Not a deity at all!Can you now see the deception my Brothers and Sisters?

If we re-write Isaiah 9:6 and use anyone of the other definitions given by the King James and the Strong’s Concordance scholars then we will get Isaiah’s true message from the verse:

  • “For unto us(HEBREWS/JEWS IN CAPTIVITY), a child is born, unto us a son is given; and the government shall be upon his shoulder, and his name shall be called Wonderful, Counselor, A Mighty One, forever, a man of Peace.” Isaiah 9:6 KJV

Just by placing another unbiased definition in this verse we can see how verse 6 ties in with verses 01 through 5. With this change no one in their right minds will think that the person prophesied in this verse is supernatural in nature at all.

Think on these points for a second:

1.     If Jesus’ name is the “Eternal Father,” then why don’t we call Jesus “Eternal Father”? Why didn’t the New Testament writers?

2.     If this King is to be literally accepted as the actual Eternal Father why is he to rule on David’s throne forever? Who is ruling in heaven if the Everlasting Father is on earth hmm?

3.     If Jesus is the MIGHTY GOD who does He pray to even when He is“ALONE?” Was it to Himself? That would make Him crazy, right?

(I guess only if He answers…)

4.     If Jesus is the “KING of kings” then why would He be called the

PRINCE of peace?”

So as you can see theologians never really seem to think of the obvious.

Now remember I just told you that I would also prove that Isaiah9:6 wasn’t calling the Messiah the Mighty God? Well let’s look at the following verse that says these words:

  • Of the increase of his government and peace there shall be no end, upon the throne of David, and upon his kingdom, to order it, and to establish it with judgment and with justice from henceforth even for ever. The zeal of the Lord of hosts will perform this. Isaiah 9:7 KJV

Notice the two underlined words in the text above. If Jesus is God as Christians claim then ask yourself:

“What Increase shall this man have?”

I mean God owns everything right?

So common sense lets you know that when the bible says this person’s government will continue to “INCREASE” the bible is simply telling us that God will bless that one particular King’s reign all the days of his mortal life. Notice how the second underlined word in verse 7 confirms this when it says, the “zeal” or power of YHWH will perform this great miracle.

Again common sense people! God is not reigning on the throne of David because God is letting the King reign. This is the very reason why God is sending Isaiah to the captives to encourage them while they are about to be at their lowest point. God is promising an anointed one to once again sit on David’s throne nothing more!

You have to understand the entire context of what Isaiah is writing. Isaiah is in no way interweaving futuristic prophecies of an end times Messiah into his writings.

That is stupid.Verse 6 runs right into verse 7 in context and verse 7 runs directly into verse 8 and so on. Notice Isaiah continues to speak in the “present tense” form of writing.

Verse 9 almost guarantees the fact that verse 6, and 7 are only for the captives of Assyria when it says the following:

  • “And all the people shall know, even Ephraim and the inhabitant of Samaria.” Isaiah 9:9 KJV

The theologians are totally wrong when they tell us that verses 6 and 7 speak of a futuristic prophecy of a Messiah.

This is easily proven by simply reading the verses that follow in context. In verse 9, Isaiah clearly says that Ephraim and all of the people of Samaria will be alive to see this prophecy come to fruition.

This means that this child king is born during a time period when Ephraim/Samaria is still a functioning nation.

Remember two chapters earlier in Isaiah 7: God said that Ephraim will cease to be a nation? Jeremiah confirms this too!

  •          And I will cast you out of my sight, as I have cast out all your brethren, even the whole seed of Ephraim. Jeremiah 7:15

Wow the bible is amazing! You wanted the proof and the bible gave you the truth that you asked for!

These verses that you have just read prove without question that Isaiah was not giving a prophecy about Jesus. During the lifetime of Jesus Ephraim/Samaria was not a viable nation and Jesus was never a King.

So what answers can your ministers possible give that will explain away these two damaging facts? They will not have any for you. Since you now know more than he does maybe you will be able to teach him something now…

So to recap what we’ve now learned, Isaiah was merely telling us the name attributes associated with the notoriety of the human king and that this man will become a legend to the Jews by what he does. Other Old Testament writers also tell about this human king and just like Isaiah they also speak of the associated attributes the people will give to this prophesied human king:

  • “Behold, the days come, saith the LORD, that I will raise unto David a righteous branch and A KING shall reign and PROSPER, and shall execute JUDGMENT and JUSTICE in the EARTH. In “HIS DAYS”,JUDAH shall be saved and ISRAEL shall dwell SAFELY and THIS IS HIS NAME whereby HE shall be called, the LORD OUR RIGHTEOUSNESS.” JEREMIAH 23:5, 6

So just like Isaiah’s words God is telling the captives that He will do several distinct things

1.   God will rise up a Righteous branch or a new Jewish nation.

2.   God will rise up a new human king.

3.   The human king will be very “Righteous.”

4.   The king will be prosperous or reign in prosperity.

5.   The king will cause judgment and justice in or (on) the earth.

6.   This judgment and justice will happen during his days or “lifespan.”

7.   Because of this prophesied king, Judah and Israel will finally be safe and return back to their homeland.

Wow! That is a lot of revelations in just two verses. …

Now do you know of anyone in the New Testament that has fulfilled any of these requirements? Wow, neither do I…

In this verse, Jeremiah gives identical name attributes as in Isaiah’s scripture. Compare this verse to Isaiah 9:6:

1.     JEREMIAH says:

  • “Behold, the days come, saith the LORD, that I will raise unto David a RIGHTEOUS branch and A (KING) shall REIGN and (PROSPER). JEREMIAH 23:5,

Jeremiah says a “SON” of David shall reign on the throne. Does Isaiah’s prophecy tell us the same thing?

2.     ISAIAH says:

  •  “For unto us a (SON) is given; and the GOVERNMENT shall be upon (HISSHOULDER).” ISAIAH 9:6

Isaiah and Jeremiah both prophesy of the son of David’s ascension to the throne during troubled times. Let’s look at more especially the underlined words in the next verses:

3.     JEREMIAH says:

  • A (KING) shall reign and prosper, and shall execute (JUDGMENT)and JUSTICE in the earth. In his days, Judah shall be SAVED, and Israel shall dwell safely.” Jeremiah 23:6,KJV

According to Jeremiah, this king shall successfully reign asking and PROSPER.He will execute and establish JUDGMENT and JUSTICE in his kingdom throughout all of (HIS DAYS). Key words: In His Days. This means during that king’s lifetime.What does Isaiah’s prophecy have to say?

4.      ISAIAH says:

  • Of HIS government and (PEACE) there shall be no end, upon the throne of DAVID, and upon His kingdom, to order it, and to (ESTABLISH) it with (JUDGMENT) and with Justice from henceforth even forever.” Isaiah 9:7 KJV

Again both prophecies are exactly the same. Notice the first words of the verse tell us what will happen during the king’s lifetime. It says during “his” governmental reign, peace will not end just like Jeremiah also says.

The key words in this verse are, “henceforth EVEN forever.”

Now what does that phrase mean? Well it definitely does not mean that this king will be in power forever. Even though the Jews sinfulness placed them in this predicament they knew this phrase meant that God would once again honor his promises to David.

The Jews knew that as long as they obeyed God’s laws and statutes Judah would never cease to have a king sitting on the throne of David until the end of time. That is what is meant by henceforth and forever. Now you know…

If you read Psalms 89 you will truly understand the context of the Jeremiah and Isaiah texts. Below I have taken the liberty to give you an excerpt below for those too lazy to read the Psalms for an understanding on their own. Focus on the underlined words in the text and you will see the truth:


26.  He shall cry unto me, thou art my father, my God, and the rock of my salvation.

27.  Also I will make him my firstborn, higher than the kings of the earth.

28.  My mercy will I keep for him for evermore, and my covenant shall standfast with


29.  His seed also will I make to endure for ever, and his throne as the days of


30.  If his children forsake my law, and walk not in my judgments;

31.  If they break my statutes, and keep not my commandments;

32.  Then will I visit their transgression with the rod, and their iniquity with stripes.

33.  Nevertheless my loving kindness will I not utterly take from him, nor suffer my

faithfulness to fail.

34.  My covenant will I not break, nor alter the thing that is gone out of my lips.

35.  Once have I sworn by my holiness that I will not lie unto David.

36.  His seed shall endure for ever, and his throne as the sun before me.

37.  It shall be established for ever as the moon, and as a faithful witness in heaven.

Isn’t it amazing what true revelations come forth with just a little scriptural reading?

Now you can fully understand what Isaiah and Jeremiah are trying to say about the new king of Israel. So Isaiah 9:6 is a prophecy of a new King who would free them from their oppression and not a prophecy of Jesus’alleged second coming.

With the blessings and power of God this human king will be on the throne of David when God frees Judah and Israel from their Assyrian oppressors. Isaiah agrees with Jeremiah that Judah and Israel will be saved:

  •          “20. And it shall come to pass in that day, that the remnant of“ISRAEL,” and such as are escaped of the house of “JACOB,”shall no more again stay upon him that smote “them…” 21. The Remnant shall return even the remnant of “JACOB, unto the might God.” Isaiah 10:20,21

Jeremiah23:5, 6, Isaiah 9:6,7 and Isaiah 10:21, 22 identical prophecies of redemption by two different Prophets!

So now you can understand the true meaning of Isaiah (9:6).

You have to remember one important thing people of God. Just like a disobedient child still has to face a spanking or punishment for his sins the Jews still have to endure their punishment as well.

Their human king is born, yes, but the prophetic fulfillment will not occur for many years until he is of age to actually sit on the throne.

Next we will see that both Prophets also give distinct characteristic attributes for this new king as well.

Let’s start with Jeremiah first and then move on to Isaiah…

Remember we just read about the righteous king that God would place on the throne to reign and execute justice and judgment. Now here comes the deception the Christian churches have purposely left out. Now Jeremiah verse 6 ends as follows in the King James Bible:

  •          “This is HIS NAME” whereby HE shall be called, the LORD OUR RIGHTEOUSNESS.” Jeremiah 23:6 KJV

After reading this verse we all would assume that this king possibly Jesus is actually being proclaimed the LORD/GOD right?


In reading the Hebrew/Jewish versions of this Old Testament verse Isaiah is crystal clear to us in what his point was. Let’s look at other versions for clarity:

  •          “In his days Judah will triumph and Israel live in safety. And this is the NAME”  he will be called, YAHWEH-is-our-Saving-Justice.” New Jerusalem with Apocrypha Jeremiah 23:6

Do you need a more Christian version of this truth?

  •         “In his days Judah shall be saved, and Israel shall dwell safely; and this is HIS NAME” whereby he shall be called: JEHOVAH our righteousness.” American Standard Jeremiah 23:6

Jeremiah never says the human king is the actual true and living God Yahweh.

No king has or ever will be known by such a blasphemous claim.

Jeremiah is simply letting us know the prophetic name attributes of the new human king that will reign on the throne when Judah and Israel are finally free from their captors.

Because of his actions the will be called by those ONLY in Judah and Israel who now live in safety as the Lord our righteousness. 

The first half of the verse proves this point for us with the very first words in verse 6:

In his days Judah will triumph and Israel live in safety.” Jeremiah 23:6 KJV

Jeremiah clearly lets us know that this event is happening in a period of time when Judah and Israel are in a state of bondage which proves this prophecy is not concerning Jesus.

Lastly, Isaiah repeats the same name attributes when he says:


Can you see why the Greco-Roman Church couldn’t allow us to learn the truth?

Isaiah wasn’t prophesying about the 1st coming of Jesus or the 2nd coming of Jesus at all. Jeremiah and Isaiah tell the same story the same way. Isaiah says:

“The zeal of the Lord of hosts will perform this.” Isaiah9:7 KJV

So clearly both Isaiah and Jeremiah are saying this King will be sent by YHWH and it is only by the ZEAL/POWER of God that will make the people free.

The Mighty God is not going to place Himself on the throne that is simply ridiculous.

Jesus said many times that the Everlasting Father is the one who taught Him and granted Him certain limited powers to perform His miracles.

So Jesus wouldn’t ever think to blaspheme God and call Himself the Mighty God. We have been lied to…

  • “Of HIS government and peace there shall be no end.” Isaiah 9:7 KJV

Hear me clearly people! This was not a promise that any person would have an Eternal government forever. Isaiah is telling us that there all war will end and Judah and Israel will be at peace as long as this particular king lives. God appoints this King to sit on the throne of David and to rule His kingdom with judgment and justice. A Christian may ask:

What about the words “from henceforth even forever?”How can Hezekiah’s kingdom last forever?

Let’s look at Exodus 21:5-6:

  •          “But if the bondsman shall say, “I love my master, my wife, and my children — I shall not go free.” Then his master shall bring him to the court and shall bring him to the door or to the doorpost, and his master shall bore through his ear with the awl, and he shall serve him “FOREVER.” Isaiah 9:7

L`olaam”(everlasting)is the Hebrew word for FOREVER.

This word can mean for all eternity or for a longtime depending upon the context. Obviously a slave can’t serve his master forever he will eventually die or be set free so we must understand the Jewish context of the verse.

In the context of the scriptures:

Of HIS government and PEACE there shall be no end.”

Since this is a righteous King, God is confirming the promises to David that there will be a descendant on his throne. Listen as God once again confirms a similar promise with David’s seed, His son Solomon. Again look at the underlined words:

  • “And (IF) thou wilt walk before me, as “DAVID” thy father walked, in integrity of heart, and in uprightness, to do according to all that I have commanded thee, and wilt keep my statutes and my judgments Then I will establish the throne of Thy KINGDOM upon Israel “FOREVER” as I “PROMISED DAVID” thy father, saying, There shall “NOT” fail thee a man upon the “THRONE” of Israel.” 1st Kings 9:4 KJV

Now did Solomon’s kingdom last FOREVER as the scriptures just proclaimed?


Solomon’s kingdom did not last forever and neither did David’s.  So as you can see, the use of Forever did not mean throughout all Eternity as our Christian Theologians want us to believe.

The use only refers to a considerable length of time such as the individual’s own life span. The length of time each King and his Princes reigned in power was always conditional to following God’s Laws and Judgments. Read Psalms 89:29-37

29.  His seed also will I make to endure for ever, and his throne as the days of heaven.

30.  If his children forsake my law, and walk not in my judgments;

31.  If they break my statutes, and keep not my commandments;

32.  Then will I visit their transgression with the rod, and their iniquity with stripes.

35.  Once have I sworn by my holiness that I will not lie unto David.

36.  His seed shall endure for ever, and his throne as the sun before me.

37.  It shall be established for ever as the moon, and as a faithful witness in heaven.

This “forever”promise is not just limited to just Psalms 89 but also repeat over and over for the Jews in other chapters as well!

  •          “The LORD hath sworn in truth unto DAVID’ he will not turn from it; of the “FRUIT/SEED” of thy body will I set upon thy THRONE. PSALMS 132:11,

“IF” THY CHILDREN” will keep my covenant and my testimony that I shall teach them, “THEIR CHILDREN” shall“ALSO” sit upon thy THRONE FOREVERMORE.” PSALMS132:11

So as you can see the word “forever” in context is “CONDITIONAL” and is limited to

a specific amount of time.

This peace is limited to the presiding King’s own lifetime.

If the king’s children are obedient to God laws and statutes then they too shall enjoy good fortune on the throne during their tenure as well. Nothing else is needed to say on this subject so now let’s move on…

We have learned so much from the true context of these verses but we still need to know just “WHO” actually became king? Then let’s find out just who this person is. This person will have to fulfill several things to qualify as heir apparent to the prophecies of Isaiah 9:6 and Jeremiah 23:6 such as:

1.   He must be a Descendant of David.

2.   He must be a Righteous person.

3.   He must be born during the time of the Assyrian Captivity.

4.   Assyria must be defeated during this King’s reign & life time.

5.   Judah & Israel must safely return home from their captives.

6.   Judah & Israel will remain safe during this King’s life span.

7.   He must be heralded by the people with great names attributes and accolades for his accomplishments.

8.   He must acknowledge the fact that Isaiah is prophesying specifically about Him.

In the next chapter we will reveal the identity of the child king of Isaiah 9…


As we now continue in this chapter, we will search the scriptures to find out which child fulfilled the prophecies of Isaiah 9:6 and Jeremiah 23:6. As we said earlier whoever this person is, he will have to fulfill several distinctive requirements to qualify as an heir apparent to these prophecies such as:

1.   He must be a Descendant of David.

2.   He must be a Righteous person.

3.   He must be born during the time of the Assyrian Captivity.

4.   Assyria must be defeated during this King’s reign & life time.

5.   Judah & Israel must safely return home from their captives.

6.   Judah & Israel will remain safe during this King’s life span.

7.   He must be heralded by the people with great names attributes and accolades for his accomplishments.

8.   He must acknowledge the fact that Isaiah is prophesying specifically about Him.

Christians tell us that these prophecies are about Jesus.However, the Jews and Muslims proclaim this historical prophecy was about the reign of King Hezekiah.So who is right? Well let’s take each attribute and search the bible for the true king that has all of these qualities. This is the only way to see which religion is telling us the truth.

1.   He must be a Descendant of David.

a)    “Now it came to pass in the third year of Hoshea son of Elah king of Israel, that HEZEKIAH son of AHAZ king of Judah began to reign. Twenty and five years old when he began to reign: and he reigned twenty and nine years in Jerusalem. And he did ALL that which was right in the sight of the Lord,according to all that (DAVID) HIS FATHER did.” 2ND KI.18:1, 2

2.   He must be a Righteous person.

a)    And he did ALL that which was right in the sight of the Lord, according to all that (DAVID) HIS FATHER did.” 2ND Kings 18:2

b)    And thus did HEZEKIAH throughout all Judah and wrought that which was “GOOD” and “RIGHT” and “TRUTH” before the Lord “HIS GOD.” 2nd CHRONICLES 31:20, 21

3.   He must be born during the time of the Assyrian Captivity.

a)    13.  Now in the fourteenth year of king Hezekiah did Sennacherib king of Assyria come up against all the fenced cities of Judah,and took them. 2ND Kings 18:13

b)    Now it came to pass in the fourteenth year of King Hezekiah, that Sen-nach’-er-ibking of ASSYRIA came up against all the defenced cities of JUDAH and took them.” Isaiah36:1


Even ISAIAH,the original writer of the prophetic verses 6 & 7 of Isaiah chapter 9, has given us the actual fulfillment of his original prophetic verses during his OWN lifetime as well.

Isaiah says after the Assyrians invaded the cities of Judah, the prophetic king did something extraordinary: He decided to pray to his God for the destruction of his enemies Assyria!

  • 15. And Hezekiah prayed unto the Lord, saying… 20.  Now therefore, O Lord our God, save us from his hand, that all the kingdoms of the earth may know that thou art the Lord, even thou only. Isaiah 37:15 &20

So this king knows the power of prayer! He prays for the destruction of the Assyrian king and his armies. Let’s move on:

4.   Assyria must be defeated during this King’s reign and lifetime.

Prophetic scriptures:

I.    Then shall the Assyrian fall with the sword, not of a mighty man; and the sword, not of a mean man, shall devour him: but he shall flee from the sword, and his young men shall be discomfited. And he shall pass over to his strong hold for fear, and his princes shall be afraid of the ensign, saith the Lord, whose fire is in Zion, and his furnace in Jerusalem. ISAIAH 31:8-9

II.    Then Isaiah the son of Amoz sent unto Hezekiah, saying, Thus saith the Lord God of Israel, Whereas thou hast prayed tome against Sennacherib king of Assyria: Behold, I will send a blast upon him, and he shall hear a rumour, and return to his own land; and I will cause him to fall by the sword in his own land. ISAIAH 37:7

Now Isaiah says that during this king’s reign, the Assyrian armies will be defeated and the rest of the Assyrian armies shall tremble in fear at the ensign of God which is the King of Judah. Isaiah also says that the King of Assyria also die but not during this battle. God is going to cause the Assyrian king to die in his own land.

Fulfillment Scriptures:

The Death of the Assyrian Army:

a)    “Then the angel of the Lord went forth, and SMOTE in the camp of the ASSYRIANS a hundred and fourscore and five thousand; and when they arose early in the morning, behold,they were all dead corpses.” Isaiah 37:36-38: 2nd KINGS19:35-37: and 2nd Chronicles 32:20, 22

Isn’t it wonderful to know that God’s word never fails?! God’s prophecy was fulfilled by King Hezekiah and the other Old Testament books confirm this-same prophetic fulfillment as well:

The Death of the Assyrian King:

b)    “So Sennacherib king of Assyria departed, and went and returned, and dwelt at Nineveh. And it came to pass, as he was worshipping in the house of Nisroch his god, that Adrammelech and Sharezer his sons smote him with the sword; and they escaped into the land of Armenia: and Esarhaddon his son reigned in his stead.”

So far King Hezekiah has fulfilled all of Isaiah’s prophecies perfectly don’t you agree? Let’s continue…

5.   Judah and Israel must safely return home from their captives.

a)    Now when all this was finished, all Israel that were present went out to the cities of Judah, and brake the images in pieces, and cut down the groves, and threw down the high places and the altars out of all Judah and Benjamin.

Then all the children of Israel returned, every man to his possession, into their own cities. 2. And Hezekiah appointed the courses of the priests and the Levites after their courses, every man according to his service… 2nd Chronicles31:1, 2 KJV

b)    “And for this cause HEZEKIAH the king and the prophet Isaiah the son of Amoz, prayed and cried to heaven. “THUS” the Lord saved HEZEKIAH and the inhabitants of JERUSALEM from the hand of Sennacherib the king of ASSYRIA, and from the hand of ALL OTHER,and guided them on every side.” 2nd CHRONICLES 32:20&22

So during King Hezekiah’s reign on David’s throne, the prophecy of Isaiah chapter 9:6 were accomplished and/or fulfilled. Israel did return home to Jerusalem and their other provinces.

6.   Judah and Israel will remain safe during the king’s lifetime.

a)    20 And the LORD HEARKENED to HEZEKIAH, and HEALED the people.” 2nd CHRON. 30:10-13, 20

  • b)    “And all the congregation of Judah, with the priests and the Levites, and all the congregation that came out of Israel, and the strangers that came out of the land of Israel, and that dwelt in Judah, REJOICED.  So there was great joy in Jerusalem: for since the time of Solomon the SON of DAVID king of Israel there was NOT THE LIKE in Jerusalem.  2nd CHRONICLES 30:25-27

Wow! Israel is now safe under the rule of King Hezekiah.

The bible even goes as far as saying that this miraculous event was:

I.    Pre-told by the Prophet Isaiah.

II.    It happened “suddenly,”

III.    All of Israel and Judah rejoiced because of the victorious human king.

IV.    Since the reign of Solomon no other human king had performed such a miracle in Jerusalem.

7.   He must be worshiped and celebrated by the people with adoration gifts and great name attributes for his accomplishments and accolades.

a)    “He trusted in the Lord God of Israel: so that AFTER HIM was None like HIM among all the kings of Judah nor ANY that were Before HIM for he clave to the Lord, and departed NOT from following him but KEPT his commandments which the LORD commanded Moses And the Lord was with him; and he prospered whithersoever he went forth: and he rebelled against the king of Assyria, and served him not..” 2ndKINGS 18:5, 6, 7.

b)    “And thus did HEZEKIAH throughout all Judah, and wrought that which was “GOOD” and “RIGHT” and “TRUTH” before the LORD HIS GOD.  And in every work that (HE) began in the service of the House of God, and in the LAW, and in the COMMANDMENTS, to seek HIS GOD, he did it with all his heart, and“PROSPERED.” 2nd CHRONICLES31:20, 21

c)    23.  And many brought gifts unto the Lord to Jerusalem, and presents to Hezekiah king

of Judah: so that he was magnified in the sight of all nations from thenceforth.

So here we have the proof in writing that King Hezekiah is the one who fulfilled the prophecies of Isaiah and Jeremiah. Now we have one more criteria to answer:

8.   He must acknowledge the fact that Isaiah is prophesying specifically about him.

a)    “Now the rest of the acts of HEZEKIAH and HIS GOODNESS,behold, they are WRITTEN in the VISION of “ISAIAH” the prophet, the son of Amoz, and in the BOOK of the KINGS of JUDAH and ISRAEL.” 2ND CHRONICLES 32:32

b)    “Then said HEZEKIAH unto ISAIAH, Good is the WORD of the Lord which THOU hast SPOKEN, and HE SAID, is it not GOOD, if(PEACE) and (TRUTH) be in MY DAYS.” 2nd KINGS 20:19

Here we have two different writers who claim the vision or “prophecies”of Isaiah are about King Hezekiah! Is that true? What does Isaiah have to say about such claims?

c)    “Then said HEZEKIAH to ISAIAH, Good is the WORD of the Lord“THOU” has spoken  He said moreover,for there shall be(PEACE) and (TRUTH) in MY DAYS” ISAIAH 39:8

Wow! That was the nail in the proverbial coffin don’t you think? What vision could they possibly be talking about hmm?

The book of Isaiah says the other writers were correct when they proclaim the prophecies in Isaiah are about their King Hezekiah.Notice how Hezekiah tells Isaiah that the words of YHWH are true which Isaiah has prophesied. Hezekiah then repeats the words of the prophecy which says:There shall be “PEACE” and “TRUTH” in “MY DAYS.” Now what prophecy do you think that could be?

  • “For unto us, a child is born, unto us a son is given; and the government shall be upon his shoulder, and his name shall be called Wonderful, Counselor, the Mighty God, The everlasting Father, the Prince of (PEACE).” Isaiah 9:6 KJV
  • “Of the increase of his government and (PEACE) there shall be no end, upon the throne of David, and upon his kingdom, to order it, and to establish it with judgment and with justice from henceforth even for ever. The zeal of the Lord of hosts will perform this.” Isaiah 9:7 KJV

PEACE& JUSTICE shall last throughout all of His “HIS DAYS.” Amazing isn’t it? Now ask yourself this question:

“WHY didn’t Isaiah correct King Hezekiah if the prophecies were NOT about him?”

Notice how Isaiah never corrected Hezekiah about his Chapter 9:6 prophecy?

As you can see they both tell us that our interpretations have been false all along.

Hezekiah cannot make it clearer to us that the Prophecies that Isaiah spoke in Chapter 9 were about HIM!

My Brothers and Sisters “HEZEKIAH”also knew that the Prophecies from God through the Prophets were all written about him and his reign.

We no longer have to guess who Isaiah speaks about. Isaiah’s own writings tell us point blank that it is King Hezekiah. How can you argue with the very writer of the gospel?

The false writers of the New Testament did not want you to study the Old Testament and learn the truth. The Greco-Roman false writers of Luke and Matthew invented a bloodline for Jesus just to fool the masses.

There is no other explanation for this heresy…

I have one more point to give you before we end this chapter.

As concerning the original prophecy of Isaiah:

  • “For unto us, a “CHILD” is born, unto us “SON” is given; and the government shall be upon his shoulder, and his name shall be called Wonderful, Counselor, The Mighty God, The everlasting Father, The Prince of Peace” Of HIS government and Peace there shall be no end, upon the throne of “DAVID”,and upon his kingdom, to order it, and to establish it with judgment and with justice from henceforth even forever. The zeal of the Lord of hosts will perform this.”Isaiah 9:6 & 7KJV

Now Isaiah is doing the speaking in this verse as we can see.

According to Isaiah a child has just been birthed by someone within the group of captives that he is speaking to.

Now did Isaiah give us clues to this child? WHO is this son that God has given to this captive people?

We don’t have to guess because Isaiah tells us in a prophecy clearly not only who the father of the son is but also the era the child will actually sit on the throne:

  • “This is the message that came to (ME) the year KING AHAZ died, don’t rejoice, Philistines, that the “KING” that smote you is dead. That“ROD” is broken, yes, but “HIS SON” will be a “GREATER” scourge to you than his father “EVER WAS.” From the snake “WILL BE BORN”an adder, a fiery serpent to destroy you.” ISAIAH 14:28-29

There is not one person with reasonable intelligence on the planet who can twist this scripture into a Jesus prophecy. Isaiah just said this prophecy came to him:

  1. The year King Ahaz died so this is during Isaiah’s own lifetime.
  2.  Isaiah is warning the Philistines i.e. the ASSYRIANS not to rejoice just because the King Ahaz is dead. Which means this prophecy will be fulfilled during the Assyrian dynasty.
  3. Isaiah warns the Assyrians saying: The Old “ROD” is dead but King Ahaz’own son the prophesied “ROD” from Ahaz, and Jesse will be a greater King than all of them.”
  4. From the Snake i.e. Ahaz, a fiery serpent will destroy Assyria.

Now who is Ahaz’ son that took his place after his death?

You are correct if you said King Hezekiah.

The Philistines/Assyrians were not a threat during Jesus’lifetime!

So here once again Jesus is eliminated from the prophetic equation.

Lastly, Isaiah speaks directly to the Philistines and other enemies of that era and says this new King, the SON of Ahaz and Jesse,will destroy them.

As you can see, all of the prophecies concerning the King from the seed of Jesse and David all came true in the bible long before the enemies of Israel could twist the words and write a new false gospel and attempt to deceive us.

Do you remember all the name attributes associated with the king in Isaiah chapter 9:6? Isaiah continues to tell us the attributes of the king again. He tells us that the king has:







Isn’t Isaiah now repeating chapter 9 again?

This man is not a deity at all as we can see.

Isaiah says the Spirit of the Almighty God will be with this King or on this King or however you decide to say it. God will give this King:

Wisdom, Understanding, Counsel, Might, and Knowledge

which my Brothers and Sisters are 5 attributes granted by God just as Isaiah said earlier in chapter 9:6&7!

Notice in the next two verses how they eliminate our chances of them speaking prophetically about Jesus as well:

  • “And shall make quick understanding in the fear of the Lord and he shall not (JUDGE) after the sight of his eyes, neither reprove after the hearing of his ears: But with RIGHTEOUSNESS shall he judge the poor and reprove with equity for the meek of the earth: and he shall smite the EARTH with the rod of his mouth and with the breath of his lips shall he slay the wicked.” ISAIAH 11:3-4

Clearly this man or King will show the world his power by trusting in God’s word. As ruler, he will not rule with his eyes and ears but with righteousness. He will not rely on might of his military armies, but it will be with his tongue and with his outcries to the Lord for help that he will slay the wicked men. Amen!

There are so many things said in the bible about King Hezekiah.Because of time restraints I’ve decided to only list the prophecies that were written exclusively about King Hezekiah.

You should read these verses in context on your own to discover what has been hidden for so long by the Catholic Church. This is just for your enjoyment. The Hezekiah prophecies are:

a.   Isaiah 9:6                            d. Jeremiah 23:5, 6

b.   Isaiah 10:34                         e. 2nd Chronicles 32:32

c.   Isaiah 11:1-4                       f.  2nd Kings 18:1, 2.


There is a song that I used to hear as a child on a children’s television show. The lyrics were:

“One of these things is not like the other, one of these things are not the same?”

I apply these lyrics to the way theologians want us to view the prophecies in the Old Testament. Now follow me for a second.

Which thing does NOT belong?

a.) Milk. B.) Potato. C.) Eggs. D.) Racecar?

If you said answer “D” you are correct.

Why? Because we can see that the other three are foods and you do not eat race cars.

So use that same reasoning when you read Isaiah Chapters 52-54.The people are slaves and are seeking a Savior not to die for their sins but to bring them out of bondage. Knowing the context the book of Isaiah is written in you would have to ask:

  1. If the people have nothing to eat or drink and are slaves in a land that is not their own why wouldn’t God tell them about a Messiah that would bring them out of Assyria now? That is asinine!
  1. Since the people are in so much suffering, would having knowledge about 700+ years in the future do them any good? Why would Isaiah now give them a prophecy of 700 years in the future? Why would they CARE?

Lastly, to recap what we have now learned. The true prophetic interpretation of Isaiah 9:6 is the rise of King Hezekiah to power and not about Jesus! The prophecy tells us that Hezekiah unlike Israel and Judah will trust in the Lord to deliver him and his people from Assyria.

The scriptures proclaim that he will rule his kingdom with peace and justice.

He shall reign all of his days with peace in his kingdom. This is not Jesus because Jesus was not born.

The Book of Isaiah not only tells of things to come, but we all have seen that the prophecies are also fulfilled in Isaiah’s writings along with the writings of the other books of the Old Testament as well. I love it when the true Gospel writers’ said concerning David’s son King Hezekiah:

  •         “He trusted in the Lord God of Israel: so that AFTER HIM was NONE like HIM among all the kings of JUDAH, NOR any that were BEFORE HIM.” 2nd KINGS 18:5, 6

I love it! The Old Testament Gospel writers proclaim that there was no king greater than Hezekiah and they also proclaim that there be no king in Judah like him either and that includes Jesus!

Now you know the truth. Will you let the truth set you free?

I say again Fast, Pray, and Study.  Read on your own to find the truth…

Mother and son worship is a perfect example of how Satan has set up a counterfeit religion.

Mother and son worship is a perfect example of how Satan has set up a counterfeit religion.

Mother and son worship is a perfect example of how Satan has set up a counterfit religion. His plan is to make a copy of Gods plan but make it so that humans will worship him.. As you will see in almost every religion there is a mother and child. It all leads back to the mother goddess of Babylon, as I mentioned in this site, after the death of Nimrod, his adulterous wife gave birth to a child who she claims was supernaturally conceived. She taught that Tammuz-the son was a God child; that he was Nimrod, reborn and that her and her child were divine. Thus establishing MOTHER AND CHILD WORSHIP.

Numerous monuments of Babylon shows the Goddess mother Semiramis with her child Tammuz in her arms.(picture to the right) Remember at the time when they built the tower of Babel God changed their languages and they were scattered throughout the earth. God did not change there mind set just their languages, they took with them the worship of the divine mother and god-child with them. This explains why all nations, in one way or another worshipped a divine mother and god child.

Among the Chinese, the Mother Goddess was called Shingmoo or the “Holy mother.” She is pictured with child in her arms and rays of glory around her head. The ancient Germans worshipped the Virgin “Hertha” with child in arms. The scandinavians called her “Disa” who was also pictured with a child. The Etruscans called her “Nutria” and among the Druids, the “Virgo-Paritura” was worshipped as the “Mother of God.”

In India, she was known as Indrani (left), who was also represented with a child in her arms. The Babylonian Mother was known as Aphodite or Ceres to the Greeks; Nana, to the Sumerians; and as Venus or Fortuna to the pagans in Rome, and her child was known as Jupiter. For ages, Isi, the “Great Goddess” and her child Iswara, have been worshipped in India where great temples were erected for their worship. In Asia, the Mother was known as Cybele and the child as Deoius.

The Bible mentions this Mother-Goddess worship when the children of israel fell into apostasy. Judges 2:13, “They forsook the LORD, and served Baal and Ashtaroth.” They turned their backs on the true God of heaven to worship Ashtaroth or Ashtoreth which was also called “the queen of heaven.” You can read in Jeremiah 44:17-19. Jeremiah is rebuking them for worshipping her, but they rebelled against his warning and thus brought sudden destruction from the true God.

In Ephesus, the Great Mother was known as Diana(left)the Goddess of Virginity and Motherhood. She was said to represent the generative powers of nature and so was pictured with many breasts. A tower shaped crown, a symbol of the Tower of Babal. The temple that was dedicated to her in Ephesus is one of the Seven Wonders of the ancient world! She was not only worshipped in Ephesus and throughout Asia, but the world (Acts 19:27).

In Egypt, the Babylonian Mother was known as Isis and her child as Horus. It is common to see this kind of monument in Egypt of Horus seated on his mother (as seen in the accompanying statue to the right).  


The worship of Mother and Child was also discovered in England in 1747, a religious monument was found at Oxford, of pagan orgian, on which it exhibited a female nursing an infant. “Thus we see,”says the historian, “that the virgin and child were worshipped in pagan times from China to Britain…….and even to Mexico. Here is some more examples of the Mother and child:

1) Ankh Nes Meryre and Son Pepi. 2) Cyprus. 3)Madonna Guanyin, Goddess of mercy 4) Matrika from Tanesara of India 5) Yasoda and Krishna. 6) Mother and son 2000-1850 B.C. 7) Mexico, Jalisco 200 B.C.- 500 A.D. 8) Maya. 9) Mexico, Colima 200 B.C.- 500A.D. 10) Mykene, Greece 11) Sun Goddess, Arinna. 12) Virgin Mary (thi is not the real Virgin Mary)

As you can see this false worship has spread  from Babylon to the various nations, in different names and forms, and finaly became established at Rome and throughout the Roman Empire. In The Golden Bough, Vol. 1, p. 356. speaking of this time “The worship of the Great Mother… was very popular under the Rome Empire. Inscriptions prove that the two (Mother and Child) received divine honours…not only in Italy and especially at Rome, but also in the provinces, particularly in Africa, Spain, Portugal, France, Germany, and Bulgaria.

It was at this period that Jesus founded the New Testament Church. By the third and fourth centuries, how ever, what was known as the “church” greatly departed from the original faith, falling into that great apostasy that was prophesied by the apostles. When this “falling away” came, much paganism was mixed with Christianity. Unconverted pagans were taken into the professing church and in numerous instance were allowed to continue many of their pagan rite and customs-usually with a few reservation or changes to make these pagan beliefs appear more similar to Christian doctrine. One example of a compromise to pagans was this Mother and son worship. Little by little the worship and pagan doctrines were being applied to Mary and Jesus.

It is evident that this Mary worship was not the worship of Mary at all, but a continuation of pagan rituals. For while Mary, the mother of Jesus, was a fine, dedicated, and  godly woman-especially chosen to bear the body of our savior-yet never was considered as a DIVINE person or a goddess by the early true church. There is no evidence in the Bible or by the Apostles or even Jesus him self ever hinted at the idea of Mary worship.



“during the first centuries of the church, no emphasis was placed upon Mary whatsoever. it was not until the time of Constantine- the early part of the fourth century-that anyone began to look to Mary as a goddess. But even at this period, such worship was frowned upon by the church, as it is evident by the words of the Epiphanius who denounced certain woman of Thrace, Arabia, and elsewhere, for worshipping Mary as an actual goddess and offerings cakes at her shrine.Yet, within just a few more years, Mary worship was not only considered by what is known today as the Catholic Church, but it became one of her main doctrines-as it is today.”

Further proof that Mary worship is of pagan decent, may be seen in her TITLES that are ascribed to her. For example, Mary is often called “THE MADONNA.” This title has nothing to do with Mary, the mother of Jesus! It is a title in which the Babylonian Goddess was know! In deified form, Nimrod came to be known as Baal. The title of his wife, the female divinity, would be the equivalent of Baalti. In English, this word means “My Lady”;in Latin, “Mea Domina”, and in Italian, it is corrupted into the well known “Madonna”!

Among the Phoenicians, the Mother Goddess was known as “The Lady of the Sea” this title was also given to Mary- though there is no connection between Mary and the sea whatsoever!

The scriptures is clear that there is only ONE MEDIATOR between God and men, our savior Jesus Christ(1 Tim.2:5. Yet Roman Catholicism teaches that Mary is also a “mediator.” So how is it that Mary came to be looked upon as a mediator? You see. the Mother Goddess of Babylon bore as one of her names, “Mylitta”, that is, “The Mediatrix.”  another title that was borrowed is “The Queen of Heaven.” This title came from a pagan Mother Goddess that was worshipped centuries before Mary was ever born. As we read in Jeremiah 7:18-20: “The children gather woo, and the fathers kindle the fire, and the woman knead their dough, to make cakes to the queen of heaven.” And in connection, it is interesting to note that right down to modern times at Paphos, Cyprus, the women made offerings to the Virgin Mary as Queen of Heaven, in the ruins of the ancient Temples of Astarte.

Another pagan Mother Goddess in Egypt was Isis and her son Horus. Now one of the title that Isis was known and later given to Mary was “The Mother of God” it was applied to Mary by the Theologians of Alexandria. Again they attempted to make Christianity appear similar to the pagan Mother-Goddess worship. Now we know that Mary was the mother of Jesus, but only in the sense of his human nature, his humanity. The Catholic title and the original meaning of the title, however, went beyond this.

The worship of Isis was not only limited to Egypt. It was introduced into Rome about 80 B.C.. when Sulla founded Anan Isiac College  there.  And  to show  the extent  of compromise and  pagan  mixture in Rome, we only need to mention the fact that Isis was worshipped in a shrine that “stood on the Vatican Hill where now stands St. Peters, the center  of church which worshippers the “Mother of God” in just the same capacity!

Such titles plainly show that the SUPPOSED worship of Mary today is in all reality the continuation of Goddess worship of pagan times. But there is further proof of this that can be seen in the way Mary came to be represented in the art of  the fallen church:

As you can see there are circles behind their heads. A circle in Chaldea was Zero, and also signified “the seed.” Zero evidently comes from the Chaldee, zer, “to encompass,” from which, also, no doubt, was derived from the Babylonian name for a great cycle of time, called a “saros.” (Bunsen vol. i. pp. 711, 712.) The Chaldeans regardedhim as the great “Seed,” he was looked upon as the sun incarnate. A circle was a symbol of the sun.  You can also find it in the pictures of Jesus, but having something extra added to it, it’s a mystic symbol used by the Chaldeans and Egyptians-the true original form of the letter T-the initial of the name of Tammuz. An interesting note is that the Tau was marked in baptism on the forehead of those initiated into the Mysteries, the Catholic Church also marks this Tau symbol on the people on ash Wednesday, nowhere in the Bible does it say to do such a pagan act.  On Chaldean coins you will find the Tau (1). Way before the cruxifiction. Etrurian and Coptic (2)(3). To identify Tammuz with the sun it was joined together with the circle (4) and inserted in the circle (5) as seen behind Jesus (right).           Place your pointer on the picture of Jesus and the mothers above.

It was so strongly written in the paganistic mind the image of the Mother Goddess with a child in her arms, that when the days of the great falling away came, the portrait of Isis and the child Horus was accepted not only in popular opinion, but by formal episcopal sanction, as the portrait of the Virgin and son. Representations of Isis and her child were often enclosed in framework of flowers. This practice too was applied to Mary who is often pictured the same way, as those who have studied Medieval Art well known.

The Egyptian goddess Isis was often represented as standing on the crescent moon with twelve stars surrounding her head. There is another woman mentioned with twelve stars in the Bible, but its not Mary. But it was also adopted to Mary (left). This adoption was to satisfy the superstitions of the heathen mind. And even as the pagans had statues of Goddess, so likewise, statues were made of Mary, even though the scriptures forbid such a practice! In some cases, the very same statues had been worshipped as Isis, were simply renamed as Mary and the Christ child- and the old worship continued! “When Christianity triumphed”, says one writer, “these painting and figures became those of the Madonna and child without any break in continuity: No archaeologist, in fact, can now tell whether some of these objects represent the one or the other.” Not only has this deceived them but it is deceiving and uniting the world.


How true that a man is born sinful?

How true that a man is  born sinful?

Christians dogma that a man inherited a sin of his forefather Adam and thus make him a sinful by nature.

And certainly the very worst idea that a man has conjectured was no less  than to teach a monstrous doctrine: that little babies open their eyes in this world as sinners, under the wrath of God, and condemned to the everlasting punishment of hell. They teach that new born babies who die without baptism will go into the “torments of hell forever.” They take Bible texts from their context in order to teach this. One of the Bible texts that they use to support this horrible dogma is

Ephesians 2:3 ESV
among whom we all once lived in the passions of our flesh, carrying out the desires of the body and the mind, and were by nature children of wrath, like the rest of mankind.

Romans 5:12 Wherefore, as by one man sin entered into the world, and death by sin; and so death passed upon all men, for that all have sinned:

ISLAM On the otherhand preached that man is not born sinful!

The Pen is Lifted From Three


The Messenger of Allah (صلي الله عليه وسلم) said: “The Pen is lifted from three (i.e., their deeds are not recorded):

  1. a child until he reaches puberty;
  2. an insane man until he comes to his senses;
  3. one who is asleep until he wakes up.”

[Recorded in Abu Dawud #4403, and Ibn Majah #2041]

This is an important hadith, fundamental to usool-ul-fiqh. This hadith applies in practically every situation and with every issue. It gives us understandings such as that children don’t need to pray or fast prior to puberty, that the insane are not criminally liable, and so on. It’s fundamental to usool-ul-fiqh, the since of how we derive fiqh.

But what does this hadith REALLY mean? Well, first recall the definition of fard: an action which, if done, entails reward, and if neglected, entails punishment. Recall that haraam means the opposite–an action which, if done, entails punishment, and if neglected, entails reward.

With this in mind, we can re-articulate this hadith to mean: there is no sin upon children, the insane, and the sleeping (some conditions apply to the sleeping–i.e. intentionally sleeping at 4am when Fajr is at 4:30am with the claim of “I’ll wake up” is just fooling yourself), though they can still earn the rewards, insha’Allah!

How amazing is that! You should encourage your children to perform more good deeds–not just to get them into the habit, but also for the potential of the reward!

And what’s more, think twice before you get angry at your children–remember that the one above the heavens is not angry with them! So why should you be?

May Allah (سبحانه وتعالى) help us all to understand this hadith and implement it wherever possible in our lives, ameen ajma’een!